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BARSIC [14]
3 years ago
6

A nonuniform beam 4.50 m long and weighing 1.40 kN makes an angle of 25.0° below the horizontal. It is held in position by a fri

ctionless pivot at its upper right end and by a cable 3.00 m farther down the beam and perpendicular to it
The center of gravity of the beam is 2.00 m down the beam from the pivot. Lighting equipment exerts a 5.00-kN downward force on the lower left end of the beam. Find the tension T in the cable and the horizontal and vertical components of the force exerted on the beam by the pivot. Start by sketching a free-body diagram of the beam.

Physics
1 answer:
liubo4ka [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

T = 7.64 kN

F_y = 0.52 kN(Downwards)

F_x = 3.23 kN (Towards Left)

Explanation:

As we know that beam is in equilibrium

So here we can use torque balance as well as force balance for the beam

Now by torque balance equation at the pivot we can say

F(4.50 cos\theta) + mg(2cos\theta) = T \times 3

As we know that

mg = 1.40 kN

F = 5 kN

so we will have

5 kN(4.50 cos25) + 1.40 kN(2 cos25) = 3 T

T = 7.64 kN

Now force balance in vertical direction

F + mg = Tsin65 + F_y

5 + 1.40 = 7.64 sin65 + F_y

F_y = 0.52 kN(Downwards)

Force balance in horizontal direction

F_x = T cos65

F_x = 7.64 cos65

F_x = 3.23 kN (Towards Left)

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Which undergoes greater acceleration: an airplane that goes from 1000 km/h to 1005 km/h in 10 seconds or a skateboard that
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Answer:

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The airplane's acceleration is:

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A 15.0-μF capacitor is charged by a 130.0-V power supply, then disconnected from the power and connected in series with a 0.280-
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The resonant frequency of a circuit is the frequency \omega_0 at which the equivalent impedance of a circuit is purely real (the imaginary part is null).

Mathematically this frequency is described as

f = \frac{1}{2\pi}(\sqrt{\frac{1}{LC}})

Where

L = Inductance

C = Capacitance

Our values are given as

C = 15*10^{-6}\mu F

L = 0.280*10^{-3}mH

Replacing we have,

f = \frac{1}{2\pi}(\sqrt{\frac{1}{LC}})

f = \frac{1}{2\pi}(\sqrt{\frac{1}{(15*10^{-6})(0.280*10^{-3})}})

f= 2455.81Hz

From this relationship we can also appreciate that the resonance frequency infers the maximum related transfer in the system and that therefore given an input a maximum output is obtained.

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Two long parallel wires 40 cm apart are carrying currents of 10 A and 20 A in the opposite direction. What is the magnitude of t
Alex_Xolod [135]

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic field halfway between the wires is 3.0 x 10⁻⁵ T.

Explanation:

Given;

distance half way between the parallel wires, r = ¹/₂ (40 cm) = 20 cm = 0.2 m

current carried in opposite direction, I₁ and I₂ = 10 A and 20 A respectively

The magnitude of the magnetic field halfway between the wires can be calculated as;

B = \frac{\mu _oI_1}{2 \pi r} + \frac{\mu_oI_2}{2\pi r}

where;

B is magnitude of the magnetic field halfway between the wires

I₁ is current in the first wire

I₂ is current the second wire

μ₀ is permeability of free space

r is distance half way between the wires

B = \frac{\mu_o I_1}{2\pi r} + \frac{\mu_o I_2}{2\pi r} \\\\B = \frac{\mu_o }{2\pi r} (I_1 +I_2)\\\\B = \frac{4\pi *10^{-7} }{2\pi *0.2} (10 +20) = 3.0 *10^{-5}\  T

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field halfway between the wires is 3.0 x 10⁻⁵ T.

5 0
3 years ago
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