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Leni [432]
2 years ago
10

Scobie Company began 2016 with a retained earnings balance of $142,400. During an examination of its accounting records on Decem

ber 31, 2016, Scobie found it had made the following material errors, for both financial reporting and income tax reporting, during 2015.
1. Depreciation expense of $15,000 inadvertently had been recorded twice for the same machine.
2. No accrual had been made at year-end for interest; therefore, interest expense had been understated by $4,000.
Scobie’s net income after taxes during 2016 was $60,000. The company has been subject to a 30% income tax rate for the past several years. It declared and paid dividends of $13,000 during 2016.
Required:
1. Prepare whatever journal entries in 2016 are necessary to correct Scobie’s books for its previous errors. Make your corrections directly to the Retained Earnings account.
Business
1 answer:
tino4ka555 [31]2 years ago
6 0

The total retained earnings on 31st December 2016 is $197,100. The journal entry are attached below.

<h3>What is Retained Earnings?</h3>

Retained earning is basically the profits of the company which is kept aside to meet the future requirement of the company. It the amount which is left over after deducting all cost such as direct cost, indirect cost, income taxes and dividend.

The retained earning is used in the future projects or for buying the equipment for the company.

Learn more about retained earnings here:

brainly.com/question/14529006

#SPJ1

.

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Only one commercial bank in the banking system has an excess reserve, and its excess reserve is $400,000. This bank makes a new
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

money supply will increase by 2,400,000

Explanation:

the expansion f the money supply will be:

the money multiplier will be:

1/reserve ratio = 1/0.125 = 8

300,000 x 8 = 2,400,000

The reasoning for the multiplier effect is the following:

once the money is received, it will be used, and the person who receive the cash will deposit their proceeds.

This amount, can generate a new loan for, the remainder after subtracting the required reserve.

300,000 - 12.5% = 262,500

And this, once used will also end in a deposit. This opens the posibility for another loan, after reducing the reserve

262,500 - 12.5% = 229,687.5‬

This can be reapeat again and again and the limit for this is the formula state above:

multiplier effect = 1/reserve ratio

5 0
3 years ago
Titus Company produced 5,900 units of a product that required 3.546 standard hours per unit. The standard fixed overhead cost pe
natta225 [31]

Answer:

$417 A.

It is an adverse variance.

Explanation:

Fixed factory overhead volume variance is the difference between budgeted output at 100% normal capacity and actual production volume multiplied by standard fixed overhead cost per unit.

Formula

Fixed factory overhead volume variance = (budgeted standard hours for 100% normal capacity - Actual standard output hours) × standard fixed overhead cost per unit.

Calculation

Since 5900 units of a product was produced in 3.546 standard hours per unit, total actual standard hour is therefore;

= 5900×3.546

=20,921 hours

Overhead cost per unit = $1.10 per hour

Hours at 100% normal capacity = 21,300 hours.

Recall the formula for fixed factory overhead volume variance is =(budgeted standard hours for 100% normal output- actual standard output hours)× standard fixed overhead per unit.

Therefore;

Fixed factory overhead volume variance =(21,300 hours - 20,921 hours)× $1.10

=379 hours × $1.10

=$417 A

It is therefore an adverse variance.

4 0
3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Round your answers to the nearest cent. $200
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Normal:

$ 3,509.7470

$    563.7093

$ 2,000.00

Due:    

 $3,930.9167

 $   597.5319

 $ 2,000.00

Explanation:

We solve using the formula for common annuity and annuity-due on each case:

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate}(1+rate) = FV\\ (annuity-due)

<u>First:</u>

C 200.00

time 10

rate 0.12

200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12} = FV\\

200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12}(1+0.12) = FV\\

Normal:  $3,509.7470

Due:       $3,930.9167

<u>Second:</u>

100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} = FV\\

100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} (1+0.06)= FV\\

$563.7093

$597.5319

<u>Third:</u>

No interest so no time value of money the future value is the same as the sum of the receipts regardless of time or being paid at the beginning or ending.

1,000  + 1,000 = 2,000

4 0
2 years ago
What is the maximum amount that OSHA can impose as as penalty on an employer for each willful violation
mixas84 [53]
For each willful violation $129,336 per violation
8 0
3 years ago
Telemarketers please help me with this question:
vazorg [7]

Answer:

your being reported

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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