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2 years ago

How many revolutions will a car wheel of diameter 22 in. make as the car travels a distance of one mile

Mathematics

1 answer:

Marianna [84]2 years ago

8 0

It would be take upto 999 revolutions.

<em>Let try to solve it,</em>

Let n represent number of revolutions.

We are asked to find the number of revolutions it will take for a car wheel of diameter 30 in. to travel a distance of one mile.

1 mile = 63360 inches.

We will use circumference of circle formula to solve our given problem.

Circumference = pi*d , where, D represents diameter of circle.

Now, we will set the product of n and circumference of circle equal to 63360 inches as:

pi*22*n= 63360

n= 63360*7/ 22*22

n= 443520/444

n= 998.91

Therefore It would be take upto 999 revolutions.

Learn more about Circumference of circle on:

brainly.com/question/18571680

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3 years ago

Vince needed five eights of a package of marbles for each gift bag if he had to make five gift bags how many packages of marbles

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Answer:

$3\frac{1}{8}$ packages of marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that Vince needed five eights of a package of marbles for each gift bag. He had to make five gift bags. We are asked to find the number of packages of marbles that Vince needs.

To find the number of packages that Vince needs, we will multiply package needed for each gift with total number of gift packages.

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4 years ago

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shepuryov [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago

An inlet pipe on a swimming pool can be used to fill the pool in 40 hours. The drain pipe can be used to empty the pool in 42 ho

statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Pool will be filled in 280 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Inlet pipe fills in 40 hours = 1 pool

Inlet pipe fills in 1 hours = $\frac{1}{40}$

Drain pipe empty in 42 hours = 1 pool

Drain pipe empty in 1 hour = $\frac{1}{42}$

If both pipes are opened together

then in pool fills in 1 hour = $\frac{1}{40}$ - $\frac{1}{42}$

on simplifying the right side ,we get $\frac{42-40}{(40)(42)}$

= $\frac{2}{(40)(42)}$

= $\frac{1}{840}$

$\frac{1}{840}$ pool fills in 1 hour

1 pool will be filled in 840 hours

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empty pool = 1 - $\frac{2}{3}$ = $\frac{1}{3}$

therfore $\frac{1}{3}$ pool will be filled in $\frac{1}{3}$ X 840 =

= 280 hours

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3 years ago