Answer:
Manager
Explanation:
an employee who is responsible for planning, directing, and monitoring the work of other employees is a manager
Hope this helped and have a good day
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Answer:
The multiple choices missing from the question are:
a. $60,000.
b. $50,000.
c. $57,000.
d. $59,000.
Option D,$59000 is correct
Explanation:
The recorded cost of the equipment is made of purchase cost,the sales tax since it is not recoverable,shipping cost as well as the installation cost.
The recorded cost is computed thus:
Purchase price $50,000
sales tax $4,000
shipping $3,000
installation $2,000
total cost $59,000
The rationale for including shipping and installation costs is that asset cost should include cost of bringing the asset to current location(shipping) and condition(installation)
Answer:
c. has decreasing slope and a person is risk averse.
Explanation:
The marignal utility of wealth represent that the subsequent utility of the person wealth is not perceived as necessary/joyful as the previous one.
This makes the slope of the utility function to go upward but at slower grow.
The first units of wealth produce a great improvement in utlity compared with the followings just like in any other good or service provided in the economy.
Answer:
The straight line depreciation for the first year is $24000
Explanation:
The straight line method of depreciation charges/allocates a constant amount of depreciation through out the useful life of the asset. The straight line depreciation expense for the year is calculated as follows,
Straight line depreciation = (Cost - Salvage Value) / Estimated useful life
Straight line depreciation = (135000 - 15000) / 5 = $24000 per year
Thus, the amount of depreciation for first year under straight line method is $24000
