Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the MIRR is shown below:
But before that terminal cash flow required to calculate
<u>
Year Cash Flows FV Factor Formula Terminal Value
</u>
<u> (Cash Flow × FV Factor) </u>
0 ($1,000)
1 $450 1.21 (1 +10%)^(2) $545
2 $450 1.1 (1 + 10%)^(1) $495
3 $450 1 1 $450
Terminal Cash Flow $1,490
now the MIRR is
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{terminal\ cash\ flow}{initial\ investment} } - 1\\\\= \sqrt[3]{\frac{\$1,490}{\$1,000} } - 1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7Bterminal%5C%20cash%5C%20flow%7D%7Binitial%5C%20investment%7D%20%7D%20-%201%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B%5C%241%2C490%7D%7B%5C%241%2C000%7D%20%7D%20-%201)
= 14.22%
As it can be seen that the MIRR is more than the WACC so the project should be accepted.
Answer:
Hopefully I understood the question correctly. Below is the affect on
assets-liabilities= owners equity
Explanation:
A. Increases assets, increases liabilty
b. Increases assets, decreases assets (a wash for assets)
c. Decreases owners equity, decreases assets
d. Increases owners equity, increases assets
e. Increases owners equity, increases assets
The answer choice that is NOT a method of evaluating the risk of a project is its B. Profile
<h3>What is Risk Management?</h3>
This refers to the identification of risk in any venture and the evaluation of the response to risk factors.
Hence, we can see that when a person is evaluating the risk of a project, he would have to check the net present value, the coefficient of variation, etc, but the evaluation of the profile is not a method of risk evaluation of the project.
Read more about risk management here:
brainly.com/question/13760012
#SPJ1
Well, since there's no options
Accounting : providing information regarding all financial aspects in the company
Marketing : determining kinds strategies to introduce company's products to the market
Management : Organizing all part of the company in order to reach company's goal