Answer:
it is an adjustment to net income.
Since the prepaid expenses increased during the year, the amount by which it increased should be deducted from operating cash flows
Explanation:
other adjustments to net income:
depreciation expense
changes in accounts receivable
changes in inventory level
changes in accounts payable
changes in other current liabilities, e.g. taxes payable
Answer: B. an increase in interest rates that decrease economic growth.
Explanation:
If interest rates were to rise in an Economy, that would mean that the cost of borrowing just rose. The rise in the Cost of Borrowing reduces consumer spending as well as business investment. This will therefore lead to a lower Aggregate demand. A lower AD in the Economy usually leads to a decrease in economic growth.
Now, if such things were to happen, a firm may definitely invest in fewer projects because first off it will be more expensive for them to borrow and invest because of the high rates. They will also be discouraged because of the Decrease in economic growth as the chances of their projects doing well will be drop in a depreciating economy.
Answer: 130 days
Explanation:
The Cash Conversion Cycle is a measure that attempts to show how many days on average it takes a company to convert resources into cash.
It is calculated with the following formula,
= Days of Inventory Outstanding + Days of Sales Outstanding - Days of Payables Outstanding
Where,
Days of Inventory Outstanding is the amount of days it takes to convert inventory to sales
Days of Sales Outstanding is the amount of time it takes debtors to pay the company for goods they bought and,
Days of Payables Outstanding is the time it took the company to pay for the goods it bought
Plugging in the figures we have,
= 100 + 60 - 30
= 130 days
The firm's cash conversion cycle is 130 days.
Answer:
Vo = <u>C1 </u> + <u>C2 + V2</u>
1 + k (1 + K)2
Vo = <u>$129,600 </u> + <u>$129,600 + $3,200,000</u>
1 + 0.14 (1 + 0.14)2
Vo = $113,684.21 + $2,562,019.08
Vo = $2,675,703.29
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
The current value of the business equals cashflow in year 1 divided by 1 + K plus the aggregate of cashflow and sales value in year 2 divided by 1 + k raised to power 2.
Answer: Your answer is true! C: