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Tasya [4]
1 year ago
9

Management estimates that 1% of the $100,000 of credit sales will be uncollectible. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $1

00 unadjusted debit balance. The adjusting entry to record estimated bad debts includes a ______. (Select all that apply.) Multiple select question. credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $1,100 debit to Bad Debt Expense of $900 Bad Debt Expense will show a negative (or credit) balance of $1,100 credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $1,000 credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $900 debit to Bad Debt Expense of $1,000
Business
1 answer:
Vitek1552 [10]1 year ago
7 0

The Adjustment entry to record the estimated bad debts include debit to Bad Debt Expense of $900 and credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $900. Thus 2nd and 5th options are correct.

<h3>What is Bad debt?</h3>

Bad Debt refers to the amount of loan which cannot be recovered. It is an outstanding balance which is irrecoverable. Thus in simply words it means the amount which will not be paid by the customer.

According to the given question, The credit balance is $100  in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

The credit sales method a specific percentage of credit sales represent bad debts of the previous period. Thus the difference amount comes under Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

Journal Entry for the estimated bad debts is as follows:

DR. BAD DEBT EXPENSE                                           $900

To CR. ALLOWANCE FOR DOUBTFUL ACCOUNTS                     $900

Learn more about Bad Debt here:

brainly.com/question/13794933

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The reserve requirement is​ 10%. Suppose that the Fed ​$ worth of U.S. government securities a bond​ dealer, electronically the​
victus00 [196]

Answer:

D. The money supply decreases by ​$150,000.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete as some figures are omitted. The full question is therefore presented first before answering the question as follows:

The reserve requirement is​ 10%.

Suppose that the Fed sells ​$150,000 worth of U.S. government securities from a bond​ dealer, electronically debiting the​ dealer's deposit account at Reliable Bank.

Which of the following correctly describes the immediate effect of this transaction on the money​ supply?

A. The money supply decreases by ​$1,500,000

B. The money supply decreases by ​$135,000.

C. There is no change in the money supply.

D. The money supply decreases by ​$150,000.

E. None of the above.

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

This is an example of Open market operations (OMO).

Open market operations (OMO) is a monetary policy strategy in which the central bank such as the Federal Reserve sells or purchases government securities in order to implement a particular monetary policy.

When the central bank sells government securities on the open market, it aims to reduce the money supply by the worth of the securities. This is called a contractionary monetary policy.

On the other hand, when the central bank purchases government securities on the open market, it aims to increase the money supply by the worh of the government securities. This is called an expansionary monetary policy.

From the question, the sale of ​$150,000 worth of U.S. government securities from a bond​ dealer is a contractionary monetary policy and it will reduce the money supply by exactly $150,000.

Therefore, the correct option is D. The money supply decreases by ​$150,000.

8 0
2 years ago
Assume the Fed creates excess reserves in the banking system by buying government bonds, but banks do not make more loans becaus
seropon [69]

Answer: Cyclical asymmetry

Explanation:

In economics, Cyclical asymmetry is defined as

A value that represents a large imbalance in economic factors due to genuine cyclical reactions by a country or market.

It includes employment rates,  interest rates, debt retention, bond strengths, or stock market imbalances.

If we assume the Fed creates excess reserves in the banking system by buying government bonds, but banks do not make more loans because economic conditions are bad.

Since this happens due to the cyclical reaction of the government.

This means that,

This situation is a problem of <u>cyclical asymmetry</u>.

8 0
2 years ago
A man has $245,000 invested in three properties. One earns 12%, one 10% and one 8%. His annual income from the properties is $23
astraxan [27]

Answer:

for 8% investment = $110000

for 12% investment = $55000

for 10% investment =  $80000

annual income for each property is

x amount for 8% investment = $8800

y amount for 12% investment = $6600

z amount for 10% investment = $8000

Explanation:

Given data

investment = $245000

rate 1 = 12%

rate 2 = 10%

rate 3 = 8%

annual income = $23400

rate = 8%  twice that invested at 12%

to find out

invested in each property and  the annual income from each property

solution

let us consider x amount for 8% investment

and consider y amount for 12% investment

and consider z amount for 10% investment

from question we say,  8% is twice that invested at 12%

x = 2y      ........1

and

x + y + z = 245000      .............2

put 1 in equation 2

2y + y + z = 245000  

z = 245000 - 3y            ...................3

and we can say that

0.08x + 0.12y + 0.10z = 23400              ...........................4

put equation 1 and 3 in 4

0.08(2y) + 0.12y + 0.10( 245000 - 3y ) = 23400

0.16y + 0.12y - 0.3y = -1100

0.02y = 1100

y = $55000

so x = 2(y) = 2(5500) = $110000

and z = 245000 - 3(55000) = $80000

so annual income for each property is

x amount for 8% investment = 0.08 × 110000 = $8800

y amount for 12% investment = 0.12 × 55000 = $6600

z amount for 10% investment = 0.10 × 80000 = $8000

4 0
3 years ago
If a portfolio had a return of 11 the risk-free asset return was 6, and the standard deviation of the portfolios excess returns
Sindrei [870]

The premium would be 5%

If a portfolio had a return of 11 the risk-free asset return was 6, and the standard deviation of the portfolios excess returns was 25 the premium would be 5%

Portfolio return = 11%

Risk free rate = 6%

Risk premium = Portfolio return - Risk free rate

                         = 11% - 6% =5%

So, the premium would be 5%

Premium is an amount paid periodically to the insurer by means of the insured for overlaying his chance.

Learn more about premium here- https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/premium

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
How we identify it’s a business?
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

when it involves two or more buyers buyers and sellers

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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