Answer:
The project A has a smaller IRR, and the project B is more attractive
Explanation:
Solution
Solve for Project A:
Now,
Let assume that the IRR be x
Hence,
The Present Value of Outflows of Cash Outflows= The Present Value of Inflows of Cash
Thus,
2000 =500/(1.0x) +500/ (1.0x)^2 +1200/(1.0x)^3
Or we say x= 4.223%
Therefore the IRR is 4.223%
For project B:
Let assume that the IRR be y.
Thus,
The Present Value of Outflow of Cash = The Present Value of Inflow of Cash
so,
2000 =600/(1.0y) + 600/ (1.0y)^2 + 1000/(1.0y)^3
Or we say, y= 4.498%
Therefore the IRR is 4.498%
Answer:
B. the weighted average time to maturity of the bond's cash flows
Explanation:

t = time to maturity
r = required return
C = coupon payment
M = maturity
V = market value
Frm the duration formula we can notice there is a weighted average as there is a sum of the coupon payment which is latter divide over the bonds market value
Answer:
Letter A is correct. <u><em>Don't distinguish between message sources.</em></u>
Explanation:
Integrated marketing communication is a relevant tool whose primary objective is to ensure that there is compliance in corporate marketing communication across all media channels used by the organization, ie all communication of promotions and dissemination of company products and services is organized and consistent to create reliability and customer experience.
There are many benefits to ensuring that integrated marketing communication is well developed, some of which are brand awareness according to their individual exposed elements, cost savings and less waste with inconsistent messages, the consumer experience that assists continuous improvement. communication and focus on results, achieved most effectively when there is synchronization between internal and external communication in the company.
Answer:
Forbearance
Explanation:
Forbearance is a term used in mortgaging that means an agreement between two parties; borrower and lender, to delay foreclosure.
Forbearance according to the dictionary means to hold back. That is, delaying or postponing an event of debt default.
Cheers
Answer: d. a two year opportunity cost of $40,000 after leaving her teaching position.
Explanation:
Hi, to answer this we have to analyze the information given.
The difference between teaching modern dance and joining a touring dance company per year is:
- $44,000- $24,000 = $20,000
We simply subtracted the earnings per year at the touring dance company to the earnings per year of teaching modern dance.
The opportunity cost per year is $20,000.
Since she is joining the touring dance company for 2 years, the opportunity cost is:
Dawnell’s decision will result in a two-year opportunity cost of $40,000 after leaving her teaching position. (option d)