Answer:
b) false
Explanation:
Operating activities: It contains those transactions that affect the after-net income working capital. It would subtract the increase in current assets and a decline in current liabilities, while adding the reduction in current assets and a rise in current liabilities.
Therefore, the given statement is false.
Answer:
8.10%
Explanation:
For computing the YTM we have to applied the RATE formula that is shown on the attachment
Data provided in the question
Present value = $1,119.34
Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 10.4% = $104
NPER = 7 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, the YTM is 8.10%
Answer:
a. A Ba1 corporate bond <u>2 (not investment grade)</u>
b. A ten-year BBB- corporate bond with a YTM of 7% <u>3 (medium risk but still investment grade)</u>
c. A secured loan from Argosy Gaming, which is a B- rated firm <u>4 (less risky since it is backed by a collateral)</u>
d. A senior subordinated bond from Argosy Gaming <u>1 (highest risk)</u>
Explanation:
There are two major bond rating agencies in the US: Moody's and Standard & Poor's.
Their rankings are very similar, although the letters vary a little:
AAA: safest
AA: low risk
A: low risk
BBB: medium risk
BB: a little bit more riskier
B: risky
CCC: very high risk
CC: even riskier
C: riskiest
D: junk, in default
Well, first find a number that both denominators in the fraction share, then you multiply whatever number it takes to get that and then multiply the same number to the numerator. Hope this helps!
Answer:
Cost of preferred stock
= <u>Perpetual dividend</u>
Current market price
= <u>$14.00</u>
$134.26
= 0.1043 = 10.43%
Explanation:
Cost of preferred stock is calculated as perpetual dividend divided by current market price. Cost of preferred stock is the minimum rate of return expected by preferred stock holder.