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forsale [732]
3 years ago
14

A client will soon be completing a course of inpatient treatment for the treatment of schizophrenia. At what point should the ca

re team review the client's eligibility for additional services, coverage, and programs in the community
Business
1 answer:
Evgesh-ka [11]3 years ago
4 0

ANSWER:

Upon admission to the inpatient setting.

STEP-BY-STEP EXPLANATION:

An inpatient admission is generally appropriate when you're expected to need 2 or more midnights of medically necessary hospital care, but your doctor must order such admission and the hospital must formally admit you in order for you to become an inpatient.

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All of the following are arguments against an explicit inflation targeting rule for monetary policy except:
White raven [17]

Answer:

C. An explicit target is easier to understand by households and firms which makes monetary policy more transparent.

Explanation:

Explicit inflation targeting is a monetary policy used by central banks to check inflation rate is under control for medium term. However, critics target this policy as they believe that instead central bank should have monetary policy for long term inflation control and economic growth for long term. Product price targeting or nominal income targeting would create more economic stability.

3 0
3 years ago
True or False: Banks are required to make electronically deposited funds available on the same day of the deposit
kakasveta [241]
The answer is true your honestly welcome
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Oberon, Inc., has a $15 million (face value) 10-year bond issue selling for 99 percent of par that pays an annual coupon of 8.35
Grace [21]

Answer:

The before-tax component cost of debt is 8.489%.

Explanation:

We apply the formula for yield to maturity (YTM) to solve this problem.

YTM = [C + (F-P)/n] / [(F+P)/2] where

C = Coupon payment

F = Face value of bond

P = Present value of bond (or current selling price)

n = Years to maturity

The given values are:

F = $15,000,000

P = 0.99 x $15,000,000 = $14,850,000

C = 0.0835 x $15,000,000 = $1,252,000

n = 10

Applying these values in the above formula,

YTM = [1,252,000 + (15,000,000 - 14,850,000)/10]

           / [(15,000,000 + 14,850,000)/2]

YTM = 1,267,000 / 14,925,000

YTM = 0.08489

YTM = 8.489%

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Boat Emporium (BE) must raise $176 million. To do so, BE expects to issue new common stock. BE's investment banker will charge i
AURORKA [14]

Boat Emporium (BE) would need to issue 2,500,000 shares to net $176 million in share issuance proceeds

What does net $176 million after flotation costs mean?

The net $176 million after flotation costs implies that after the investment banker has deducted 12% of the total amount of shares issued, Boat Emporium (BE) would receive $176 million.

The fact that investment banker's charge is 12%, means that Boat Emporium (BE) is only entitled to 88% of the total amount raised(100%-12%)

In other words, we can convert the 88% of proceeds to 100%, the total amount raised to start with as shown below:

88% of proceeds=$176 million

proceeds=$176 million/88%

proceeds=$200 million

The total amount raised is the price per share multiplied by the number of shares issued

total amount raised=share price*shares issued

total amount raised=$200 million

share price=$80

shares issued=unknown(assume it is X)

$200 million=$80*X

X=$200 million/$80

X=2.50 million shares

Find out more about share issuance on:brainly.com/question/17190441

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
A company performs 20 days of work on a 30-day contract before the end of the year. The total contract is valued at $6,000, with
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

Based on the information given the required adjusting journal entry will includes a $4,000 DEBIT TO UNEARNED REVENUE reason been that we were told that the company carried out 20 days of work out of 30-day contract before the end of the year which means that the company has earned an UNEARNED REVENUE by the end of the year of the amount of $4,000 calculated as ($6,000 * 20 days /30 days) which is why the adjusting Journal entry would includes a $4,000 DEBIT TO UNEARNED REVENUE.

5 0
3 years ago
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