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2 years ago

Need help finding the one complete period of a non transformed contangent function

Mathematics

1 answer:

Elza [17]2 years ago

6 0

One complete period of a non-transformed cotangent function is π.

The period of the function is defined as the interval after which the function value repeats itself.

For example, f(T+x)=f(x)

where T is the period of the function.

Here given that there is a non-transformed function cotangent function.

We have to find the period of the function in which interval the value of the function will repeat.

So for the function y=f(x)=cot x

the period of the function is π. means after π the value of the cotangent repeats.

cot(π+x)=cot x

Then one cycle of the cotangent graph lies between 0 and π.

Therefore One complete period of a non-transformed cotangent function is π.

Learn more about period of the function

here: brainly.com/question/3511043

#SPJ10

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Math troubles :/ greatly appreciated if you can help

RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

$V=523.33$

Step-by-step explanation:

$V=\frac{4\pi r^3}{3}$

$V=\frac{4\pi 5^3}{3}$

$V=\frac{500\pi }{3}$

$V=\frac{500*3.14 }{3}$

$V=\frac{1570 }{3}$

$V=523.33$

5 0

3 years ago

Help please guys i neeedddd helllppp smart peeeps

prisoha [69]

Answer:

Point coordinates: (5,5)

Explanation:

Q = (1,4)

4 units to the right is the same as <em>x + 4</em>

1 unit up is the same as <em>y + 1</em>

The translation's coordinates are (1+4,4+1)

5 0

4 years ago

A research team conducted a study showing that approximately 15% of all businessmen who wear ties wear them so tightly that they

Helen [10]

Answer:

a) 0.913

b) 0.397

c) 0.087

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information:

We treat wearing tie too tight as a success.

P(Tight tie) = 15% = 0.15

Then the number of businessmen follows a binomial distribution, where

$P(X=x) = \binom{n}{x}.p^x.(1-p)^{n-x}$

where n is the total number of observations, x is the number of success, p is the probability of success.

Now, we are given n = 15

We have to evaluate:

a) at least one tie is too tight

$P(x \geq 1) = P(x = 1) +....+ P(x = 15)\\=1 - P(x = 0)\\= 1 - \binom{15}{0}(0.15)^0(1-0.15)^{15}\\=1 - 0.087\\= 0.913$

b) more than two ties are too tight

$P(x > 2) = P(x = 3) +....+ P(x = 15)\\=1 - P(x = 0) - P(x=1) - P(x=2)\\= 1 - \binom{15}{0}(0.15)^0(1-0.15)^{15}-\binom{15}{1}(0.15)^1(1-0.15)^{14}-\binom{15}{0}(0.15)^2(1-0.15)^{13}\\=1 - 0.087 - 0.231 - 0.285\\= 0.397$

c) no tie is too tight

$P(x = 0)\\=\binom{15}{0}(0.15)^0(1-0.15)^{15}\\=0.087$

d) at least 18 ties are not too tight

This probability cannot be evaluated as the number of success or the failures exceeds the number of trials given which is 15.

The probability is asked for 18 failures which cannot be evaluated.

8 0

4 years ago

The value of a $3000 computer decreases about 30% each year. write a function for the computers value V(t)

den301095 [7]

Answer:

Function for given situation is : $V(t)=3000(0.70)^t$

Value of computer after 4 years = $720.3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the value of a $3000 computer decreases about 30% each year. Now we need to write a function for the computers value V(t). then we need to find about how much will the computer be worth in 4 years.

It clearly says that value decreases so that means function represents decay.

For decay we use formula:

$A=P(1-r)^t$