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saw5 [17]
2 years ago
6

The winner of the first annual Tom Morris Golf Invitational won $105 in the competition which was held in 1899. In 2015, the win

ner received $1,460,000. If the winner's purse continues to increase at the same interest rate, how much will the winner receive in 2050
Business
1 answer:
antoniya [11.8K]2 years ago
5 0

$25968406.94.

a. Computation of Effective Interest Rate

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

Future Value = $1460000

Present Value = $105

n = Number of Years = 116 Years

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

1460000 = 105 * (1 + r)^116

13904.76 = (1 + r)^116

1.0857 = 1 + r

Effective Interest Rate = 8.57%

b.Future Value in the year 2050

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

Present Value = $1460000

n = Number of Years = 35 Years

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

Future Value = 1460000 * (1 + 0.0857)^35

Future Value = 1460000 * 17.7866

Future Value in the year 2050= $25968406.94.

Learn more about interest rates at

brainly.com/question/25793394

#SPJ2

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All of the following statements about GDP are false except Group of answer choices Higher GDP reflects more equal distribution i
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

Higher GDP reflects higher economic growth of an economy

Explanation:

Gross domestic product is the total sum of final goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year

GDP calculated using the expenditure approach = Consumption spending by households + Investment spending by businesses + Government spending + Net export

Net export = exports – imports

When exports exceeds import there is a trade deficit and when import exceeds import, there is a trade surplus.  

Items not included in the calculation off GDP includes:  

1. services not rendered to oneself

2. Activities not reported to the government  

3. illegal activities

4. sale or purchase of used products

5. sale or purchase of intermediate products

6. Measures for calculating happiness. so higher GDP doesn't indicate higher happiness

5 0
3 years ago
The Waltham System
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

Option A                

Explanation:

The Waltham-Lowell method was a labor and manufacturing paradigm implemented in the U.s during the growth of the textile industry, especially in New England, in the broader context of the initial 19th century rapid growth of the Industrialisation.

The program utilized regional labor, sometimes linked to as mill girls, who went from small towns to the fresh textile facilities to make more money than they might at home to live an educated life in "the town." Their lives were very structured-they lived in boarding houses for the corporation and were carried to stringent hours and a value system.

8 0
3 years ago
Andrew had a fire in his house that destroyed his big screen TV. He bought it 2 years ago and, according to the insurance compan
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

$1,200

Explanation:

Actual Cash Value defined either as i) the fair market value of the item, or ii) the Replacement Cost of the item minus depreciation based upon the age of the item that was damaged.

Replacement cost = $2,000

Depreciation= 3 years remaining of it's life = 3/5 × 100 = 60%

Actual cash value = $2,000 × 60% = $1,200.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The manufacturing overhead budget at Foshay Corporation is based on budgeted direct labor-hours. The direct labor budget indicat
Anna [14]

Answer:

$26.50

Explanation:

The computation of the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:

= Variable overhead rate + fixed overhead rate

where,

Variable overhead rate is $8.30

And, the fixed overhead rate is

= $145,600 ÷ 8,000 direct labor hours

= $18.2

So, the predetermined overhead rate is

= $8.30+ $18.2

= $26.50

We simply added the available overhead rate and the fixed overhead rate so that the predetermined overhead rate could arrive

5 0
3 years ago
g Builtrite has calculated the average cash flow to be $16,000 with a standard deviation of $4000. What is the probability of a
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

89.44%

Explanation:

As we know that:

Z = (Cash Flow - Mean) / Standard Deviation

Here

Cash flow is the observed value which is the lower limit here and is $11,000

Mean is the average value of the sample and is $16,000

Standard Deviation is $4,000

By putting values, we have:

Z = ($11,000 - $16,000) / $4,000

= -1.25

The Z value lower than -1.25 is 0.1056 or 10.56%

This means that the probability of cash flow lower than $11,000 is 10.56% and the probability of cash flow greater than $11,000 will be

Probability of cash flow = (1- 0.1056) = 0.8944  which is 89.44%

6 0
3 years ago
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