Answer:
$37,600 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance can be computed as;
= (Actual hours worked × Actual variable overhead rate) - ( Actual hours worked - Standard variable overhead rate)
= ( 18,800 hours × $77,700/12,000) - (18,800 hours × $4.5)
= [(18,800 × $6.5) - (18,800 × $4.5)]
= $122,200 - $84,600
= $37,600 favorable
I know the answer is but b and d because they have the key words savings and with credit you pay lower to so the answer should be A
Answer:
Explanation:
The solution to the above problem is shown in the attached picture below. It is because of the arrangement i had ti use pen and book. Thank you
Answer:
C : $686
Explanation:
The computation of the cash received amount is shown below:
= (Sale value of merchandise - returned merchandise) × (100 - discount rate)
= ($1,000 - $300) × (100 - 2%)
= $700 × 98%
= $686
Since the payment is made within 30 days, so the company could avail the discount of 2% and the return goods should be deducted so that the actual amount of cash received can come.
Answer: i. €0.11
ii. €1.08
Explanation:
i. If we get 1 krona for every $0.13 then how many krona do we get per dollar?
= 1/0.13
= 7.69 Krona is to $1
If $1 is 7.69 Krona and $1 is also €0.85 then that means that,
€ 0.85 = 7.69 Krona
So for each Krona exchanged, we get how many Euro,
= 0.85/7.69
= 0.11
For each Krona exchanged, we get €0.11
ii. Following the example of the first question,
if £1 is to $1.12 then how many pounds are a dollar?
= 1/1.12
= 0.89
£0.89 is equal to a dollar.
if €1 is to $1.04 then how many euros are a dollar?
= 1/1.04
= 0.96
€0.96 are equal to a dollar.
This means that,
£0.89 = €0.96
So for every British Pound exchanged we get how many Euros?
= 0.96/0.89
= 1.078
= €1.08
For every British pound Exchanged, we get €1.08
