Answer:
e. 14.20%
Explanation:
We use the formula:
A=P(1+r/100)^n
where
A=future value
P=present value
r=rate of interest
n=time period.
Hence
A=$450(1.1)^2+$450(1.1)^1+$450
=$450[(1.1)^2+(1.1)+1]
=$1489.50
Hence
MIRR=[Future value of inflows/Present value of outflows]^(1/time period)-1
=[1489.5/1000]^(1/3)-1
=14.20%(Approx)
Answer:
The answer is work outside their own comfort group as they attempt to understand others’ perspectives.
Explanation:
Stretch goals tend to be a form of job enrichment, where individuals are challenged to perform better than their most recent performance achievement. In the context of group assignment, individuals are challenged to try things outside of their comfort zone. Stretch goals aren’t related to actual physical exercise, thus making answer (B) wrong, and automatically disqualifying answer (D). Nor does it require members to (A) take a break in order to avoid topic-fatigue.
Answer:
73,000 units
Explanation:
The computation of equivalent units for conversion costs is shown below:-
Equivalent units = Units transferred ÷ Finished goods + (Units in closing Work in progress × Percentage of completion)
= (8,000 + 69,000 - 5,000) + (5,000 × 20%)
= 72,000 + 1,000
= 73,000 units
Therefore for computing the Equivalent units we simply applied the above formula.
Answer:
<em><u>It would generate a financial disadvantage for 62,800</u></em>
Explanation:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-&continued&discontinued&differential\\Sales&351,900&0&-351,900\\Variable&-260,100&0&260,100\\Contribution&91,800&0&-91,800\\Fixed&-103,000&-74,000&29,000\\total&-11,200&-74,000&-62,800\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D-%26continued%26discontinued%26differential%5C%5CSales%26351%2C900%260%26-351%2C900%5C%5CVariable%26-260%2C100%260%26260%2C100%5C%5CContribution%2691%2C800%260%26-91%2C800%5C%5CFixed%26-103%2C000%26-74%2C000%2629%2C000%5C%5Ctotal%26-11%2C200%26-74%2C000%26-62%2C800%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
It would generate a financial disadvantage for 62,800
Because the product, while is having a loss, their contribution cover is enought to cover at least the avoidable fixed cost.
Answer:
equal to the british interest rate
Explanation:
Data provided in the question
The Interest rate on these securities = 12%
In the U.S, the interest rate = 10%
Also the spot rate for today would become suitable for the spot rate
Based on the above information, the effective yield on the british securities would be equivalent to the british interest rate and hence the same is to be considered
