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sammy [17]
1 year ago
13

Which of the following inequalities has no solutions?

Mathematics
1 answer:
neonofarm [45]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

  • A) x > 3 and x < 2 has no solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

Given inequalities below and we are looking for a pair with no solution.

Let's verify:

A) x > 3 and x < 2,

  • It has no solutions since the two inequalities have no common interval.

B) x > - 3 and x < - 2,

  • Its solution is -3 < x < - 2, the interval between two given endpoints.

C) x > - 3 and x < 2,

  • Similar to option B, the interval is between two endpoints:
  • - 3 < x < 2

D) x > - 3 and x > - 2,

  • Its solution is x > - 2, the two inequalities cover almost same interval.
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Consider the sequence 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, .... (a) Write a recursive rule to represent the sequence. (b) Write an explicit rule to
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

  a. a[1] = 3; a[n] = 2a[n-1]

  b. a[n] = 3·2^(n-1)

  c. a[15] = 49,152

Step-by-step explanation:

Each term of the given sequence is 2 times the previous term. (This description is the basis of the recursive formula.) That is, the terms of the given sequence have a common ratio of 2. This means the sequence is geometric, so the formulas for explicit and recursive rules for a geometric sequence apply.

The first term is 3, and the common ratio is 2.

<h3>(a)</h3>

The recursive rule is ...

  a[1] = 3

  a[n] = 2×a[n-1]

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<h3>(b)</h3>

The explicit rule is ...

  a[n] = a[1]×r^(n-1)

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<h3>(c)</h3>

The 15th term is ...

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5 0
2 years ago
if 20 men can finish a piece of work in 30 days how many additional numbers of mains will be employed to finish the work in 24 d
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

no of days                                                   no of men

30                                                                         20

24                                                                             20

30/24=x/20

24 x=30*20

24x=600

x=600/24

x=25

therefore  5 more men are needed to complete the work in 24 days                

8 0
3 years ago
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we multiply 40 by 5280 and divide by 3600

40 * 5280 / 3600

this gets us 58.666666...
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5 0
3 years ago
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sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Not sure what it is, does anyone know?
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Answer:

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7 0
3 years ago
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