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ikadub [295]
2 years ago
10

Linear molecules must be nonpolar, thus linear molecules cannot participate in dipole-dipole attraction.

SAT
1 answer:
Klio2033 [76]2 years ago
7 0

According to the research, the statement "Linear molecules must be nonpolar, thus linear molecules cannot participate in dipole-dipole attraction" is true.

<h3>What are dipole-dipole attractions?</h3>

It is observed between a positive dipole of a polar molecule with the negative dipole of another, the atom with the highest electronegativity attracts electrons towards itself, forming a negative dipole around it.

In polar covalent bonds, the atom with the least electronegativity, the dipole formed has a positive charge, since it partially gives up its electrons.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the statement "Linear molecules must be nonpolar, thus linear molecules cannot participate in dipole-dipole attraction" is true.

Learn more about dipole-dipole attraction here: brainly.com/question/14361169

#SPJ1

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C=59(F−32)The equation above shows how temperature F, measured in degrees Fahrenheit, relates to a temperature C, measured in de
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Our answer choices are:

- A temperature increase of 1 degree Fahrenheit is equivalent to a temperature increase of 5/9 degrees Celsius.

- A temperature increase of 1 degree Celsius is equivalent to a temperature increase of 1.8 degrees Fahrenheit.

- A temperature increase of 59 degree Fahrenheit is equivalent to a temperature increase of 1 degree Celsius.

Let's try the first one. We can just choose any temperature and then use the number 1 larger than it; let's do F = 10:

C = (5/9) * (10 - 32) = (5/9) * (-22) ≈ -12.2

When F = 10 + 1 = 11:

C = (5/9) * (11 - 32) = (5/9) * (-21) ≈ -11.7

We see that indeed, -11.7 - (-12.2) ≈ 0.56 ≈ 5/9, so the first is correct.

For the second, let's see what happens when C = 10 and when C = 11:

10 = (5/9) * (F - 32)

F = 50

11 = (5/9) * (F - 32)

F = 51.8

Again we see that indeed 51.8 - 50 = 1.8

So, the second choice is also correct.

Thus, the answer is D.

7 0
3 years ago
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<h3>Why it  illegal to drive a vehicle while under the influence of Alcohol?</h3>

It is  illegal to drive a vehicle while under the influence of Alcohol because once you take alcohol, it will make someone to be nub , which can make him to loose concentration on the road.

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brainly.com/question/9380087

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