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labwork [276]
2 years ago
6

The entry and exit of firms in a purely competitive industry help to improve resource allocation because:_______

Business
1 answer:
Morgarella [4.7K]2 years ago
3 0

The reason why the entry and exit of firms in a purely competitive industry helps to improve resource allocation is because the losses result in exit and release resources to flow to markers where there are profits.

<h3 /><h3>How can the purely competitve market be beneficial?</h3>

Purely competitive industries allow for easy entry and b which leads to many firms coming into the market.

As a result, there is too much supply which leads to losses when prices drop.

As the companies suffering losses leave the market, they then invest in other markets where there are profits thereby reallocating resources.

Find out more on resource allocation at brainly.com/question/15129284

#SPJ1

You might be interested in
Suppose that market demand is Q = 660 – 12P and marginal cost is MC = 5. The consumer surplus in a perfectly competitive market
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer: 15000; 3750

Explanation:

From the question,

Q = 660 – 12P

MC = 5

The consumer surplus in a perfectly competitive market will be:

P = MC

Therefore, P = 5

Q = 660 - 12P = 660 - 12(5) = 660 - 60 = 600

Consumer surplus = 1/2 × (55 - 5) (600)

= 1/2 × 50 × 600

= 15,000

For monopoly, MR = MC

Total Revenue = P × Q

Since Q= 660 - 12P

P = (660 - Q)/12

TR = P × Q

= (660 - Q)/12 × Q

= (660Q- Q²)/12 × Q

MR = (660 - 2Q)/12

MR = MC

(660 - 2Q)/12 = 5

(660 - 2Q) = 5 × 12

660 - 2Q = 60

2Q = 660 - 60

2Q = 600

Q = 600/2

Q= 300

Since P =(660 - Q)/12

= (660 - 300)/12

= 360/12

= 30

Consumer surplus = 1/2 × (55 - 30) (30)

= 1/2 × 25 × 300

= 3750

Therefore, the answer is 15000; 3750

7 0
3 years ago
Old Economy Traders opened an account to short sell 1,000 shares of Internet Dreams from the previous problem. The initial margi
GrogVix [38]

Answer:

a.38%

b. No because the margin is above the requirement at 38%

c.-150%

Explanation:

a.

1000 shares*$40 per share = 40000

margin requirement is 50% so equity = 20000

1 year later price increase to 50

$1000 shares*$50 per share = 50000

dividend = $2*1000 = 2000

margin = 20000/52000 = 38%

b.

No because the margin is above the requirement at 38%

c.

Price of 1000 stock year 1 at 50$/share = 50000

40000 – 50000 = -10000

Rate of return = (-10000 -20000)/20000 = -150%

3 0
3 years ago
A company purchased $6,500 of merchandise on May 1 with terms of 2/10, net 30. On May 6, it returned $500 of that merchandise. O
viktelen [127]

Answer:

The cash paid on May 8 is: $5,880

Explanation:

Credit terms of 2/10, net 30 means that 2% discount for the payment within 10 days and the full amount to be paid within 30 days.

The company purchased $6,500 of merchandise on May 1. On May 6, it returned $500 of that merchandise.

The balance owed for merchandise = $6,500 - $500 = $6,000

On May 8, it paid the balance owed for merchandise, taking any discount it is entitled to.

The company took the appropriate discount:

2% x $6,000 = $120

The cash paid = $6,000 - $120 = $5,880

5 0
3 years ago
In which of the following scenarios would you have the most money at the end of the year? 3% compounded yearly 2% compounded mon
larisa [96]
3% compounded yearly<span />
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The cost object in a job order system is the ______ and the cost object in a process costing system is the ______.
nordsb [41]

Answer:

The correct word for the blank space is: specific job; process.

Explanation:

The cost object represents the cost of an object or department for which that cost is assigned. For instance, the repairs department of a dealership is a cost object of the repairs employees and the repair supplies. Cost objects are usually traceable thus are treated as direct costs for accounting purposes.

Then, <em>the cost object of a job order is the specific job assigned</em>; <em>while the cost object of a process costing system is the process </em>itself.

6 0
3 years ago
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