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Advocard [28]
3 years ago
15

Suppose the manager agrees to pay each employee a​ $50 bonus if they meet a certain goal. on a typical​ saturday, the​ oil-chang

e facility will perform 45 oil changes between 10
a.m. and 12 p.m. treating this as a random​ sample, there would be a​ 10% chance of the mean​ oil-change time being at or below what​ value? this will be the goal established by the manager.
Business
1 answer:
djyliett [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

There is a​ 10% chance of the mean​ oil-change time of 20.53 minutes

Explanation:

Given that:

There are 45 oil changes between 10 a.m. and 12 p.m. treating this as a random​ sample, n = 45 and  there would be a​ 10% chance of the mean​ oil-change time, therefore P = 10% = 0.1

A probability of 0.1 gives a corresponding z score of -1.28, this is gotten from the z table. z = -1.28

z score (z) = (x - mean) / (standard deviation / √n)

Let us assume mean = 21.2 minutes and standard deviation = 3.5 minutes. substituting values:

-1.28 = (x - 21.2)/(3.5 ÷ √45)

-1.28 = (x - 21.2) / 0.522

x - 21.2 = -0.6678

x = 21.2 - 0.6678 = 20.53

x = 20.53

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Direct Materials, Direct Labor, and Factory Overhead Cost Variance Analysis
seropon [69]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Mackinaw Inc. processes a base chemical into plastic. Standard costs and actual costs for direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead incurred for the manufacture of 40,000 units of product were as follows:

Standard Costs - Actual Costs

Direct materials 120,000 lb. at $3.20 118,500 lb. at $3.25

Direct labor 12,000 hrs. at $24.40 11,700 hrs. at $25.00

Factory overhead Rates per direct labor hr., based on 100% of normal capacity of 15,000 direct labor hrs.:

Variable cost, $8.00 $91,200 variable cost

Fixed cost, $10.00 $150,000 fixed cost

Each unit requires 0.3 hour of direct labor.

A) Direct material price variance= (standard price - actual price)*actual quantity

Direct material price variance= (3.20 - 3.25)*118,500= $5925 unfavorable

Direct material quantity variance= (standard quantity - actual quantity)*standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (120,000 - 118,500)*3.20=-$4,800 favorable

Total direct material variance= 5,925 - 4,800= 1,125 unfavorable

B)Direct labor efficiency variance= (SQ - AQ)*standard rate

Direct labor efficiency variance= (12,000 - 11,700)*24.40= -$7,320 favorable

Direct labor price variance= (SR - AR)*AQ

Direct labor price variance= (24.40 - 25)*11,700= $7,020 unfavorable

Total direct labor variance= $300 favorable

C) Variable factory overhead controllable variance= (8*15,000 - 92,100)= -$27,900 favorable

Fixed factory overhead volume variance= (10*15,000 - 150,000)= 0

Total factory overhead variance= 27,900 favorable

3 0
3 years ago
Whom do price supports benefit and whom do<br> they hurt?
Flura [38]
They benefit producers and hurt consumers
7 0
3 years ago
You are at a wedding and are unexpectedly asked to give a toast to the bride and groom. What would you do?
frez [133]

Answer:

I would say go for it

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Which statement about portfolio diversification is correct?
mario62 [17]

Answer:

C. As more securities are added to a portfolio, total risk typically would be expected to fall at a decreasing rate.

Explanation:

Portfolio diversification gives more security to a portfolio, which expected to results in a decreasing rate of total risk.

The portfolio which is diversified carries the co-variance measure of risk. It has the property of reducing the risk as it diversifies the portfolio to a great extent.

It reduces the overall risk by diversifying the assets i.e. stock , bonds, commodities etc.

Hence, the most appropriate answer is option C.

8 0
3 years ago
MacCloud Industries has two divisions-Standard and Premium. Each division has hundreds of different types of tennis racquets and
Helen [10]

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of the weighted average contribution margin ratio is shown below:

The Contribution margin ratio is

= (Combined contribution ) ÷ (Sales)

= ($60,000 + $180,000) ÷ ($1,000,000)

= ($240,000) ÷ ($1,000,000)

= 0.24

b. Now the break even point in dollars is

= Fixed cost ÷ contribution margin ratio

= $300,000 ÷ 0.24

= $1,250,000

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

3 0
3 years ago
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