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zlopas [31]
2 years ago
9

When a person receives an increase in wealth, what is likely to happen to consumption and saving?

Business
1 answer:
Arturiano [62]2 years ago
8 0

When a person receives an increase in wealth, Consumption increases and saving decreases

Both present and future consumption rises as a consumer's current income does as well. Savings increase because current spending increases but does so at a slower rate than current income growth. Again, both present and future consumption rises when the customer receives an increase in predicted future income.

Savings declines because current consumption rises while current income does not. Current and future consumption both grow when the consumer's wealth increases. Again, because current income has not increased, saving has decreased. These individual actions to adjust one's consumption and saving habits have a cumulative effect on the aggregate amount of desired consumption and saving.

To learn more about consumption here,

brainly.com/question/14975005

#SPJ4

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The income effect causes quantity demanded to​ ________ when the price of a normal good​ decreases, and causes quantity demanded
AveGali [126]

c. ​increase; decrease

4 0
3 years ago
Rise Against Corporation is comparing two different capital structures: an all equity plan (Plan A) and a levered plan (Plan B).
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

a. Plan A

b. Plan B

c. $638,400

Explanation:

The formula to compute the earning per share is shown below:

Earning per share = (Net income - interest) ÷ (Number of shares)

a. For Plan A

EPS = ($500,000) ÷ (210,000 shares) = $2.38

For Plan B

EPS = ($500,000 - $182,400) ÷ (150,000 shares) = $2.12

The interest is computed below:

= $2.28 million × 8%

= $182,400)

Plan A has higher EPS

b. For Plan A

EPS = ($750,000) ÷ (210,000 shares) = $3.57

For Plan B

EPS = ($750,000 - $182,400) ÷ (150,000 shares) = $3.78

The interest is computed below:

= $2.28 million × 8%

= $182,400)

Plan B has higher EPS

c. Break-even EBIT

(EBIT) ÷ (Number of shares) = (EBIT - Interest) ÷ Number of shares

(EBIT) ÷ (210,000) = (EBIT - $182,400) ÷$150,000

After solving this,

The EBIT would be $638,400

3 0
3 years ago
The teenage market is a market that is categorized in what way?
grin007 [14]
The closest answer that i can think of is categorized by consumer. By consumer, we are saying that you have to categorize them based on what they like meaning based on what they like at their age. For example, if you are going to market a pizza store to them, one of the best ways to do that is to position your pizza store as a place for friends to hang out because teenagers, at that age, love to hang out with friends and to be cool. So you have to categorize a teenage market by their interests when they are at that certain adolescent age
5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements regarding life insurance needs is / are correct? 1. The human life value approach looks forwar
Tresset [83]

Answer:

The human life value approach looks forward for information.

and

The capitalization of income approach looks at right now only for information.

Explanation:

A life insurance is a form of agreement entered into by an individual and an insurance firm whereby some amount is to be paid to the next of kin of the individual under the insurance. It can also be in the form of payment of bills in the case of the illness of the individual under insurance.

The individual either pays in batches or a one time payment to the insurance agency.

The individual current value is normally considered in analysing his assets and income.

7 0
3 years ago
During the year, Octagon produced 8,000 units, used 24,000 direct labor hours, and incurred variable overhead of $120,000. Budge
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

Manufacturing overhead rate(spending) variance= $24,000 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Actual direct labor hours= 24,000

Octagon produced 8,000 units and incurred a variable overhead of $120,000.

The hours allowed per unit are 2. The standard variable overhead rate is $3.00 per direct labor hour.

To calculate the variable overhead spending variance, we need to use the following formula:

Manufacturing overhead rate(spending) variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity

Actual rate= 120,000/24,000= 5

Manufacturing overhead rate variance=  (6 - 5)*24,000

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= $24,000 favorable

7 0
3 years ago
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