When the Federal Reserve sells treasury bonds to a bank, the money supply is decreased. Since there are smaller available funds for the bank to loan (they have tied up some cash by buying the bonds), the interest rate the bank charges (all other things EQUAL!) will increase.
Basically, what has happened is that the bank has lent money to the federal government, rather than to other lenders. So if it has no other sources of lendable funds AND borrowers don't have other banks to go to that are charging the current rate, the same number of borrowers competing for a smaller amount of borrowable funds will lead to a higher price, (interest rate) for those loans.
Answer:
The current market price per share is $14.82
Explanation:
The current price of the stock can be calculated using the DDM or dividend discount model. The DDM values the stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock.
The following is the formula for the price of the stock today,
P0 = D1 / (1+r) + D2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + Dn / (1+r)^n + Terminal value
The terminal value is the cumulative value of all the future dividends calculated when the dividend growth becomes zero or constant. In case the dividend growth becomes zero, like in this case, the terminal value is calculated as follows,
Terminal value = Dividend / r
Where,
- r is the required rate of return
- Dividend is the dividend which will remain constant through out the future
So, the price of this stock today is,
P0 = 1.52 / (1+0.11) + 1.60 / (1+0.11)^2 + 1.62 / (1+0.11)^3 +
(1.65 / 0.11) / (1+0.11)^3
P0 = $14.82
Answer:
Cash payments:
March $30,300
April $51,660
May $58,490
Explanation:
The following costs amounting to $9,000 should be deducted from the projected expenses per month
A. Insurance costs (it had been prepaid in February)
B. Depreciation (it doesn't involve any cash movement)
C. Property tax (it won't be due for payment until June)
This leaves each month expense as shown in the attached schedule. And based on the 70 : 30 rule, the table reflects the full payment structure.
Answer:
c. Work in Process--Department 2 375,000 Work in Process--Department 1 375,000
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Work in Process - Department 2 $375,000 ($100,000 + $125,000 + $150,000)
To Work in Proces - Department 1 $375,000
(Being the flow of cost from Dept 1 to Dept 2 is recorded)
Here the work in process for dept 2 is debited as it increased the assets and credited the work in process for dept 2 as it decreased the assets
Answer:
![A = 28000 [\frac{0.12 (1.12)^4}{(1.12)^4 -1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20A%20%3D%2028000%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B0.12%20%281.12%29%5E4%7D%7B%281.12%29%5E4%20-1%7D%5D)
![A = 28000 [\frac{0.12*1.574}{1.574-1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20A%20%3D%2028000%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B0.12%2A1.574%7D%7B1.574-1%7D%5D)
So then the annual pay would be $ 9218.564 for this case
Explanation:
For this question we can use the Equivalent annual value (A) given by the following expression:
![A = PV [\frac{i (1+i)^t}{(1+i)^t -1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20A%20%3D%20PV%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bi%20%281%2Bi%29%5Et%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5Et%20-1%7D%5D)
Where 
represent the pesent value
since the rate is yearly
since we have 4 years to pay
So then we have everything to replace and we got:
So then the annual pay would be $ 9218.564 for this case
And this amount would be paid each year in order to pay all the money after 4 years.
