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alukav5142 [94]
2 years ago
12

________ is the shift from people making their own fun to people purchasing it as goods and services.

Business
1 answer:
Greeley [361]2 years ago
6 0

The commodification of recreational activities is the shift from people making their own fun to people purchasing it as goods and services.

<h3>What is commodification?</h3>

This is when values are assigned to objects or things which are previously meant for fun. Commodification occurs when something that used to have intrinsic value gradually develops a monetary value like water, or sunshine, or knowledge as an example.

Here, human and socio cultural value are converted into market value which also applies to goods, services, ideas, and other forms and products.

Commodification provides benefit to a business environment which includes opportunities for developing new products and services inorder to meet ever changing customer needs and demand.

Learn more about commodification here: brainly.com/question/13235742

#SPJ1

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On July 1, 20X9, Link Corporation paid $340,000 for all of Tinsel Company's outstanding common stock. On that date, the costs an
likoan [24]

Answer:

Goodwill = 25,000

Explanation:

Goodwill is an intangible asset, is the differential reflected in a consolidated balance sheet immediately after the business combination between the purchase price of a company and the fair market value of identifiable assets and liabilities. Goodwill is recorded when the purchase price is higher than the sum of the fair value of all identifiable tangible and intangible assets purchased in the acquisition and the liabilities assumed in the process.

In this case:

Goodwill = Purchse Price - Net assets fair value

Goodwill = 340,000 - 315,000

Goodwill = 25,000

The difference between the book value and fair value of the acquired company are adjustments to the amount presented in the consolidated balance sheet.

6 0
3 years ago
Pepe, Incorporated acquired 60% of Devin Company on January 1, 2017. On that date Devin sold equipment to Pepe for $45,000. The
krek1111 [17]

Answer:

The loss on equipment recognized by Devin on its internal accounting records for 2017 is $9,000

Explanation:

By using the given information which is mentioned in the question, first we have to calculate the book value of equipment.

So, the book value of the equipment is equals to

= Cost price - accumulated depreciation

= $120,000 - $66,000

= $54,000

Now we can calculate the loss or gain on sale of equipment which is equals to

= Sale price - book value

= $45,000 - $54,000

= - $9,000

Since, the amount shows negative which means the company has suffered a loss of $9,000 on equipment

The other things like net income of 2017 and 2018 is irrelevant because it tells the net income of overall company not for equipment. So, it is not being considered while computation

Hence,  the loss on equipment recognized by Devin on its internal accounting records for 2017 is $9,000

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that five years ago you borrowed $300,000 using a 30-year fixed-rate mortgage with an annual interest rate of 10% with m
Elenna [48]

Answer:

Please check the explanation below.

Explanation:

Rate of Interest =10% or 0.83% monthly

Monthly Payment under this plan=PMT(0.0083, 360, 300000) =$2,632.71

Loan outstanding after 5 years of payments =$289,723

New Interest Rate =8.5% or 0.7083% monthly

Balance Tenure= 25 years

New Monthly Installment =PMT(0.007083,300,289723) =$2,332.93

Monthly savings in installment reduction =$2,632.71 - 2,332.93 =$299.78

a. Net present value of refinancing = -0.05x289,723 + 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-300)/0.007083}

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 299.78x124.1886

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 37,229.25

                                                  = 22,743.10

b. With new monthly installment, balance outstanding at the end of 8th year =$278,258

Net Present Value of Refinance = -0.05x289,723 + 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-36)/0.007083}

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 299.78x31.68

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 9,446.46

                                                  = -4,989.68

c. For refinance loan to have net present value positive, let n payments are required,

NPV = -0.05x289,723 + 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-n)/0.007083}

14,486.15 = 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-n)/0.007083}

14,486.15x0.00783/299.78 =(1-(1.007083)-n)

0.3423 = 1-(1.007083)-n

(1.007083)-n = 0.6577

(1.007083)n = 1.5204

Taking Log both sides,

n = log(1.5204)/log(1.007083)

n = 59.36

Hence, he would need to make 60 payments for making NPV of refinance as zero.

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Answer:a

Explanation:

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