Answer: $5,600 Favorable
Explanation:
Total Overhead Variance is a method of measuring if the company is spending more than it is supposed to on overhead. It checks this by computing the difference between the Actual Overhead spent and the Budgeted/ Standard Overhead that it was supposed to spend.
If the Actual Overhead is more than the Standard Overhead the Variance is Negative, if the reverse is true then the Variance is Positive.
The formula for the Variance given the details in the question is,
Total Overhead Variance = Standard total Overhead - Actual Overhead
= (Standard hours * Pre-determined Overhead rate) - Actual Hours
= ( 20,600 * 6) - 118,000
= 123,600 - 118,000
= $5,600
The Standard Total Overhead is more than the Actual Total Overhead so the Variance is Positive as Pine Company spent less than it thought it would.
Answer:
The confidence interval is between 2.23 and 3.53
Explanation:
The confidence interval (C) = 99% = 0.99
α = 1 - C = 1 - 0.99 = 0.01
α/2 = 0.01/2 = 0.005
The z score of α/2 corresponds to the z score of 0.495 (0.5 - 0.005) which is 2.576
The margin of error (E) is given as:
The confidence interval = mean ± margin of error = 2.88 ± 0.65 = (2.23, 3.53)
The confidence interval is between 2.23 and 3.53
Answer;
The action that would most likely cause the Equal employment opportunity commission to intervene;
- A company posts an ad looking to hire a male computer programmer.
Explanation;
Equal employment opportunity entails the provision of equal opportunity for employment and advancement within a company or an organization to all individuals, including those that fall under the protected classes. The protected classes include, race, color, age, national origin, disability, reprisal and sex.
$1.60 is the answer you are looking for.
.$80*2= $.160
Answer:
a. How much will Ruby’s IRA be worth when she needs to start withdrawing money from it when she retires?
the future value of Ruby's IRA = $10,000 x 21.725 (FV factor, 8%, 40 periods) = $217,250
b. How much money will she have to accumulate in her company’s 401(k) plan over the next 40 years in order to reach her retirement income goal?
she needs to accumulate $875,000 - $217,250 = $657,750 during the next 40 years
the annual contribution = FV / FV annuity factor = $657,750 / 259.057 (FV annuity factor, 8%, 40 periods) = $2,539.02 per year
