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vazorg [7]
2 years ago
10

When comparing a 10-year bond versus a 1-year bond, the 10-year bond has a much greater interest rate risk. True or false?.

Business
1 answer:
ValentinkaMS [17]2 years ago
5 0

True,When comparing a 10-year bond versus a 1-year bond, the 10-year bond has a much greater interest rate risk

<h3>What is bond?</h3>

A bond is a sort of financial security in which the issuer owes the bearer a debt and is obligated to repay the principle of the bond as well as interest over a specified period of time, depending on the terms. Interest is normally paid at regular intervals.

Bonds are one way for businesses to raise funds. A bond is a loan made between an investor and a firm. The investor agrees to contribute the corporation a particular sum of money for a set length of time. In exchange, the investor receives interest payments on a regular basis.

To know more about bond follow the link:

brainly.com/question/25965295

#SPJ4

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Suppose there is a large increase in the money supply in an economy that previously had low inflation. As a consequence, aggrega
hoa [83]

Answer:

It illustrates that the classical model of the price level best applies to economies with persistently high inflation.

Explanation:

When a very low inflation rate has been constant in an economy, and the money supply increases suddenly, in the short run that change will not immediately increase the inflation rate, but instead it will increase real output.

Classical economists argue that an increase in the money supply will immediately affect the inflation rate, but that theory applies mostly to economies that have a certain level of inflation. For example, for the past 12 years, European nations have been experiencing very low inflation rates, sometimes even negative rates. But during that same period, the European Central Bank has carried on a huge expansionary policy. It favored economic growth, although not as much as expected, but it didn't skyrocket inflation rate as the classical economy model predicted.

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3 years ago
Google this for me: How to handle analysis paralysis?
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6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Wood Division of Bramble Corp. manufactures rubber moldings and sells them externally for $45. Its variable cost is $25 per
Lyrx [107]

Answer:

c. $45

Explanation:

Transfer price is the price charged for a product which is transferred to other department/ division / subsidiary of same company / group. The minimum selling price in the absence of any excess capacity is the price available in the market, because the company has demand for the product and it does not lost the sale if transfer not takes place. The product can be sold in the market. So the Transfer price should be $45.

4 0
3 years ago
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Dexter Company uses the direct write-off method. March 11 Dexter determines that it cannot collect $9,100 of its accounts receiv
Sidana [21]

Answer:

(During write-off) March 11

Dr    Bad debt expense                     $9,100

Cr    Accounts receivable                  $9,100    

(at the time of collection) March 29

 Dr Accounts receivable                      $9,100    

 Cr Bad debts expense                        $9,100

 

  Dr Cash                                              $9,100

  Cr  Accounts receivable                   $9,100

Explanation:

On March 11, Dexter made an entry to write-off bad debts in the amount of $9,100. Dexter Co., charged it directly to Accounts receivable because the company uses direct write-off method. During the collection we have 2 steps to consider; First, On March 29 during the unexpected collection, Dexter shoud set up the reversal of the write-off entry which they had made last March 11. So we debit Accounts receivable and credit bad debts in the amount of $9,100. Second, is to record the collection, debit cash and credit Accounts receivable in the amount of $9,100.

5 0
3 years ago
Kelso Electric is debating between a leveraged and an unleveraged capital structure. The all equity capital structure would cons
ryzh [129]

Answer:

$52,267

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the break-even level of earnings before interest and taxes between these two options

EBIT/40,000 = [EBIT- ($280,000 ×0.07)]/25,000

EBIT/40,000 = [EBIT - ($19,600)]/25,000

Cross multiply

25,000EBIT=40,000(EBIT-19,600)

25,000EBIT=40,000EBIT-784,000,000

EBIT = $52,267

Therefore the break-even level of earnings before interest and taxes between these two options is $52,267

4 0
2 years ago
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