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stiv31 [10]
2 years ago
12

Which of the following answer choices LEAST supports the idea that the stories will have a strong impact?

History
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]2 years ago
8 0

The first one.

The later ones all have some sort of relevant 'life lesson' intertwined in them.

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How was Massachusetts Bay Colony simultaneously theocratic, democratic, oligarchic, and authoritarian?
LiRa [457]

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The Massachusetts Bay Colony government was able to be, at least partially, simultaneously theocratic, democratic, oligarchic, and authoritarian. It was able to be partly theocratic because of the doctrine of the covenant, which stated that the whole purpose of government was to enforce God’s laws. God’s laws applied to everyone, even nonbelievers. Everyone also had to pay taxes for the government-supported church. This meant that religious leaders held enormous power in the Massachusetts Bay Colony.

They were able to effectively control who was admitted to the church by conducting public interrogations of people who claimed to have experienced conversion. The last reason it was partially theocratic was one of the main governors, John Winthrop, believed he had a “calling” from God to lead the Massachusetts colony. The Massachusetts Bay Colony was partially democratic for a couple of reasons. First, the freemen elected the governor and his associates each year. The freemen also voted for a representative assembly called the General Court. The Colony was also partly an oligarchy.

It was an oligarchy because only Puritans could be freemen and were eligible to vote. Puritans were even more limited because religious leaders could control who was admitted into the church. Finally, the Massachusetts Bay Colony was partially authoritarian. This was partially because many of the residents were Puritans. Puritans shared in the “Protestant Ethic”, which involved serious commitment to work and to engagement in worldly pursuits. Everyone was held to these standards because of this. Everyone was expected to do this, even if they weren’t Puritan.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Why is it inaccurate to say the roman empire "fell" ?
wariber [46]

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Ok please dont say that my answer was wrong but this is what from I think:

I think that it was offensive to them to say that it FELL since they are royal in their own ways and they probably like it as if it were said to be : "fallen"? They probably don't like admitting defeat so they try to make it present or like really cool in their own ways. DISCLAIMER: WHAT I THINK!!!

7 0
2 years ago
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