Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Debt = D ÷ (E + D)
= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)
= 0.4444
Now
Weight of equity = 1 - Debt
= 1 - 0.4444
= 0.5556
As per Dividend discount model
Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)
Cost of equity = 11%
Cost of debt
K = N
Let us assume the par value be $1,000
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N
k=1
K =25
$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25
k=1
YTM = 9
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 9 × (1 - 0.21)
= 7.11
WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)
= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556
= 9.27%
As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion
Answer:
The interpretation of the discussion is characterized throughout the explanation segment below.
Explanation:
- Concentrate on an investigation as well as implementation or enhancement as something with a category or manner of price-free competitive advantage.
- With more than just related diversification, there is much less inflationary pressure as well as the corporation or manufacturer should start concentrating on non-price competitive advantage throughout the opportunity to expand mostly on the supply chain.
So the answer here is just the appropriate one.
A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.
for better understanding lets explain what conventional peg means
- conventional peg as related to when country formally (de jure) pinpoint their own currency at a fixed rate to the currency of another said country example is, from the currencies of major trading or financial partners and weights showing on the distribution of trade in different geographical zones
- The known backbone or anchor currency or basket weights are public or notified to the IMF and a country authorities are able to maintain the fixed parity through direct intervention
From the above, we can therefore say that the answer A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows is correct.
learn more about exchange rates from:
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Net annual cash flows
1,200+10,000=11,200
Net present value is
PV of annual cash flows-project investment
11,200×2.4018−30,000=(3,100)
Answer:
Option (E) is correct.
Explanation:
Under the perfectly competitive market conditions, there are large number of buyers and sellers and there is no restrictions on the entry and exit of the firms. Prices of the goods are determined by the market forces and the demand curve for a firm in a perfectly competitive environment varies significantly from the market demand curve. The demand curve is horizontal because all the goods in a perfectly competitive market are considered as perfect substitutes.
