Answer:
B) There is an inflationary gap, and contractionary fiscal policy is appropriate.
Explanation:
One of the macroeconomic cases is inflationary gap. It means that the difference between the current level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the predicted or forecasted GDP that would be experienced and achieved if an economy is at full employment. It could be claimed that when the demand for goods and services gets over the production in the factors such as: higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities or increased government expenditure.
In order to overcome this gap, the contractionary fiscal policy must be considered. The mechanism of that policy is to increase the taxes decrease the government expenses due to inflationary pressures. This policy consequently will affect the level of consumption and private investment, respectively, these also will decrease the real GDP.
Other concept of macroeconomics is recessionary gap. In comparison to inflationary gap, this concept indicates the economy operating at lower level than its full equilibrium level, in turn, the level of real GDP is also less than full equilibrium level. We used to see this situation when the economy was intending to recess.
In order to overcome this gap, the expansionary fiscal policy will work well. Because of decreasing taxes and increasing government expenditures, the recessionary gap can be fought anymore. Since the taxes decreases, the business will revive and the confidence to the investment will increase, as a result the GDP will rise. Moreover, the growing government expenditures will stimulate the GDP to accrue.
To summarize, according to the question we need the gap in which the economy is above of potential, this means inflationary gap. Following this finding, the contractionary fiscal policy will be solution.
The purchase of low-quality materials would most likely the result of a favorable materials price variance coupled with an unfavorable material usage variance. Material price variance is the difference between the cost and the budgeted and actual cost to obtain an object or materials, multiply to the total amount of the product purchased. They are what you called positive value of direct material price and negative value of direct material price. A positive value of direct material price variance is the one that is favorable and it means that the direct material was purchased for a lesser price than the standard price. A negative value of direct material price variance is the one that is unfavorable and it means that more than the expected price per unit is paid.
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question is B) the economy is at full employment.
Explanation:
Standardized budget which is also know as full employment budget , is used to measure the federal budget deficit or surplus , with the given tax rates and government spending. Here the assumption made is that the economy has full employment, and this is one of the major difference between standardized and actual budget . Also standardized budget would reflect any type of adjustment that has to be made in the actual budget. So therefore the only way that actual budget and standardized budget are equal is when they both have full employment present in the economy.
Answer:
Overhead application rate
= <u>Budgeted overhead</u>
Budgeted machine hours
= <u>$900,000</u>
30,000 hours
= $30 per machine hour
Overhead cost assigned to the product
= Overhead application rate x Actual machine hours
= $30 x 12,000 hours
= $360,000
Explanation:
In this case, there is need to determine the overhead application rate, which is the ratio of budgeted overhead to budgeted machine hours.
Then, we will obtain the overhead cost assigned to the product by multiplying the overhead application rate by actual machine hours.