Answer:
Total value (5,400)
Explanation:
10,000,000 rupees
option to sale ruppes at $2.30
2.3
The spot rate was 2.80
Option Premium:
10,000,000 / 100 x 0.004 = 400
Stop difference:
(2.80 - 2.30) x 10,000,000 / 100 = 5,000
Total value (5,400)
Based on the relationship between the above mentioned measures, the following is true:
- Price and yield to maturity are <u>inversely </u>related.
- When YTM <u>rises</u>, the price of the bond <u>falls</u>.
<h3>What is Yield to Maturity?</h3>
- It is the discount rate on the bond.
- It shows the riskiness of the bond.
When the YTM is high, it means that the bond is more risky which leads to it having a lower price to compensate for the risk. The reverse is true.
Find out more on YTM at brainly.com/question/15172286.
Answer:
Opportunity costs.
Explanation:
Investing in stocks depicts Barney's opportunity cost of money.
The opportunity cost is the money or funds held up by an individual instead of investing it in other businesses or ventures to yield interests.
Answer:
No
Explanation:
Tehe Overlapping tenure for the retiring and new physicians tends to increase the transfer of practice specific knowledge. The profit sharing with the new physician increases her incentives to maximize profits but since the sale price is a multiple of the profits during this 3 year, the new physician has an incentive to shirk to keep the profits low. it would be better to use a multiple of profits from the period before she began this probation.
