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anyanavicka [17]
2 years ago
13

The primary difference between the capital adequacy ratio (car) and the leverage ratio (lr) is?

Business
1 answer:
Ainat [17]2 years ago
5 0

The capital adequacy ratio (CAR) calculates a bank's available capital as a proportion of its risk-weighted credit exposures. The capital adequacy ratio, is commonly known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR). A leverage ratio is any of a number of financial metrics that examine the amount of capital that is borrowed (loans).

Learn more about capital adequacy Ratio (CAR ) And leverage Ratio (LR) here:

brainly.com/question/16993640

#SPJ4

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Three employees in the maintenance department are responsible for repairing the video games at Pinball Wizard, a video arcade. A
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

(D) Calling a patient to confirm an appointment.

Explanation:

Which among the following processes of a dentist's office is the most likely a back-office process?

A back office process is a process that supports the front office processes. In the service industry such as this - dental services - a back office process won't require the presence of the client.

THE ANSWER IS (D)

Calling a patient to confirm an appointment doesn't require facing the patient or having them around.

Filing a claim with the patient's dental insurance provider requires the presence of one or both of the client and his insurance officer.

Cleaning a patient's teeth requires his or her presence at the dental clinic.

Same with option C.

8 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of 2013, Barcroft Co. estimated that its total annual fixed overhead costs would amount to $25,000. Further, Ba
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

b. Products were overcosted in 2013

Explanation:

When determining the cost of a product, we consider only the Overheads Applied.

<u>Applied Overheads are calculated as :</u>

Pre-determined Overhead Rate <em>multiplied by </em>Actual Activity

<u>Predetermined Overhead Rate is calculated as follows :</u>

Budgeted Overheads <em>divided by</em> Budgeted Activity

Predetermined Overhead Rate = $25,000/2,000 units

                                                     = $ 12.50 per unit

Applied Overheads = $ 12.50 per unit × 2,200 units

                                 =  $ 27,500

The Overheads Applied are then <em>Compared to</em> Actual Overhead Cost to determine is the Overheads where Over or Under Applied

<u>Therefore our case presents the following:</u>

Applied Overheads ($ 27,500) >Actual Overheads ($25,000)

Therefore, we have an Over-Application situation.

Over-Applied Overheads are $2,500

3 0
3 years ago
Assume Clarks cannot estimate the standalone selling price of a pair of SunBoots sold without a coupon. Prepare a journal entry
kicyunya [14]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Cash Dr (1,000 × $65) $65,000  

     To Sales revenue $59,000  

     To Deferred Revenue -Discount coupon  $6,000

(1,000 × $100 × 30% × 20%)

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

here the cash is debited as it increased the assets and credited the sales revenue and deferred revenue as it increased the revenue and liabilities

7 0
2 years ago
Pharoah Corporation provides its officers with bonuses based on net income. For 2017, the bonuses total $384,900 and are paid on
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer: Pharaohs journal $

Date

December 31, 2017

StaffBonusexpensesDr384,900

Accruede liability Cr384,900

Narration. Staff bonus due as at date.

February 15,2018

Accrued liability Dr 384, 900

Bank Cr. 384,900

Narration. Payment of staff bonus due

Explanation:

In line with the acrual concept of recognising expenses at the period they are due for payment. The staff bonus will be recognized as an expense to the income statement in 2017 and accrued as liability in the balance sheet if it's not paid.

The payment in 2018 will be a debit to the liability account and credit to the cash or bank account.

5 0
3 years ago
If the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1:
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

b. small percentage changes in the price will lead to much larger percentage changes in the quantity demanded.

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive is quantity demanded to change in price. Its formula is given by:

E_{D} = \frac{dQ}{Q}{\frac{P}{dP} =

= % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price

So when absolute value E_{D}  is greater than 1, a x percentage change in price will lead to larger than x percentage change in quantity demanded.

<u>Note</u>: Whether the percentage change in quantity demanded will be just a little or very much larger than percentage change in price will depend on how much E_{D} is larger than 1. But b is the still the best answer among the options.

7 0
3 years ago
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