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anyanavicka [17]
2 years ago
13

The primary difference between the capital adequacy ratio (car) and the leverage ratio (lr) is?

Business
1 answer:
Ainat [17]2 years ago
5 0

The capital adequacy ratio (CAR) calculates a bank's available capital as a proportion of its risk-weighted credit exposures. The capital adequacy ratio, is commonly known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR). A leverage ratio is any of a number of financial metrics that examine the amount of capital that is borrowed (loans).

Learn more about capital adequacy Ratio (CAR ) And leverage Ratio (LR) here:

brainly.com/question/16993640

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If the allocation base in the pre-determined overhead rate does not drive overhead costs, it will nevertheless provide reasonabl
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

B. False

Explanation:

  • The production costs are the cost that is involved in the formation of a product and they include the direct labor and material and the consumer production supplies and the  factory overhead.  
  • The production cost can also be also to be considered to be the cost of the labor that is delivered to a service to the consumer. The overhead cost includes the insurance, the interest, and the legal fees, and does not involve an averaging process.
4 0
4 years ago
Refer to Fishy Business. In the future, suppliers of fresh fish will be able to use electronic bar codes to verify the fish spec
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

c) Electronic Data Interchange

Explanation:

Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that this information technology is called Electronic Data Interchange or EDI for short. This technology allows one company to send large sets of data/information to another company electronically as opposed to other physical delivery methods of communication. Which in this case the electronic method that will be used are electronic bar codes.

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sandhill Company reports the following financial information before adjustments. Dr. Cr. Accounts Receivable $132,500 Allowance
goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer:

S/n  Accounts title                                        Debit      Credit

a.      Bad Debt expenses                          $2,655

                Allowance for Doubtful debts                    $2,655

                ((132,500*5%)-3,970)

        (Being bad debt expense recorded)  

b.       Bad Debt expenses                           $8,255

                  Allowance for Doubtful debts                   $8,255

                   {(132,500*5%)+1,630]

         (Being bad debt expense recorded)

5 0
3 years ago
A premium bond that pays $60 in interest annually matures in seven years. The bond was originally issued three years ago at par.
Art [367]

Answer:

D.The yield-to-maturity is less than the coupon rate.

Explanation:

Whenever the yield to maturity is less than the bond's coupon rate, bond market value is greater than par value ( premium bond), these applies just as the question states that the premium bond pays $60 in interest annually in seven years and the bond was issued originally 3 years ago at par

in other cases when a bond's coupon rate is less than its yield to maturity, then the bond is selling at a discount and when a bond's coupon rate is equal to its yield to maturity. the bond is selling at par.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose Ningbo Steel had sales revenue of $11,000 sales revenue, cost of goods sold of $5,000, operating expenses of $3,000, int
Allisa [31]

Answer:

Net profit after tax = $1600

Explanation:

Below is the calculation for net profit after tax:

Net profit = Sales revenue - cost of good sold - operating expenses - interest expenses

Net profit = 11000 - 5000 - 3000 -1000

Net profit = 2000

Net profit after tax = 2000 - (20 % of 2000)

Net profit after tax = 2000 - 400

Net profit after tax = $1600

5 0
3 years ago
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