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anyanavicka [17]
1 year ago
13

The primary difference between the capital adequacy ratio (car) and the leverage ratio (lr) is?

Business
1 answer:
Ainat [17]1 year ago
5 0

The capital adequacy ratio (CAR) calculates a bank's available capital as a proportion of its risk-weighted credit exposures. The capital adequacy ratio, is commonly known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR). A leverage ratio is any of a number of financial metrics that examine the amount of capital that is borrowed (loans).

Learn more about capital adequacy Ratio (CAR ) And leverage Ratio (LR) here:

brainly.com/question/16993640

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Which one sounds better?<br> Basic Betty OR Basic Betsey
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

Basic Betty

Explanation:

Sounds more normal

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The net income reported on the income statement for the current year was $240,000. Depreciation was $50,000. Accounts receivable
Ilya [14]

Answer:

a. $337,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine How much cash was provided by operating activities

Using this formula

Cash provided by Operating activities=Net income+Depreciation+Account receivable+Inventories decreased -Prepaid expenses+Accounts payable increased

Let plug in the formula

Cash provided by Operating activities=$240,000 + $50,000 + $10,000 + $30,000 - $1,000 + $8,000

Cash provided by Operating activities=$337,000

Therefore the cash provided by operating activities was $337,000

3 0
2 years ago
Kimbeth Manufacturing uses process costing to control costs in the manufacture of Dust Sensors for the mining industry. The foll
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

DM Cost per Equivalent unit: 4.25

Explanation:

22400 beginning  60% materials 20% conversion

140,000 started

33600 ending 90% materials 40% conversion

Beginning Inventory

DM 71,160

DL 26,610

MO 20,110

Conversion Cost  46,720

Cost during the month

DM 618,800

DL 241,330

MO 513,600

Conversion Cost 754,930

Equivalent units Materials

22,400 * .4     8,960

140,000       140,000

33,600 * .1    (3,360)

                  145,600

DM Cost per Equivalent unit: 4.25

7 0
3 years ago
The XYZ Block Company purchased a new office computer and other depreciable computer hardware for $12,000. During the third year
Rudiy27

Answer:

Present worth is $7,944 ( Considering some assumptions )

Explanation:

Depreciation is the reduction in the value of asset due to wear and tear. Depreciation is charged only on fixed asset on a straight line or on a fixed rate per year.

Computer and other hardware of $12,000 to be depreciated over 5 years with no salvage value

Depreciation per year = ( Cost of Asset - Salvage value ) / Useful life = ($12,000 - $0) / 5 = $12,000/5 = $2,400 per year

It is assumed that the assets are donated at the end of third year and depreciation of that year is fully charged.

Depreciation for 3 years = $2,400 x 3 = $7,200

Now As all these event happened in the past and it is assumed that we are standing at the end of year 3, the present worth of the all these depreciation is actually the future value of these deduction because it was made earlier.

Present worth of depreciation is as follows

Present Worth = [$2,400 x (1+0.1)^2 ] + [$2,400 x (1+0.1)^1 ] + [$2,400 x (1+0.1)^0 ] = $2,904 + $2,640 + $2,400 = $7,944

Third deduction was made at the date when worth is being calculated.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose the economy is at a position below its institutional production possibilities frontier. To improve this situation, Keyne
Cloud [144]

Answer:

Keynesian economists might propose that government <em>reduces </em>taxes, which will cause the aggregate demand curve to shift to the <em>right </em>and Real GDP will <em>increases</em>.

Explanation:

Keynesian economics is demand-sided.

If the economy is producing at full capacity, increased demand will only cause inflation as goods and services cannot be increased although people are willing to pay more (real GDP the same)

However, if the economy is below capacity, the problem is that there is not enough demand to drive production (additional goods and services produced will not be bought). Keynesians would advocate reducing taxes to stimulate demand.

When taxes are reduced, goods become cheaper. People are willing to buy more at similar prices (that producers charge), causing the aggregate demand curve to shift to the <em>right. </em>As economy is below capacity, suppliers are able to responded by supplying more goods and services (supplier curve shift to the right) and Real output (GDP) would increase.

7 0
3 years ago
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