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Anna11 [10]
1 year ago
15

If a firm has $300,000 in cash flow from assets and $100,000 in cash flow to shareholders, what is the cash flow to creditors?

Business
1 answer:
Oxana [17]1 year ago
8 0

The cash flow from assets must equal the sum of the cash flow to creditors plus shareholders.

CF from Assets = CF to Shareholders plus CF to Creditors.

CF From assets = CF to Shareholders + CF to creditors.

CF from assets - CF to Shareholders = CF to creditors.

Thus, 300,000 - 100,000 = 200,000.

What is cash flow (CF)?

One of the areas on the cash flow statement that details how much money was made or spent on various investment-related activities during a given time period is the cash flow from investing activities (CFI) section. Purchases of tangible assets, investments in securities, and sales of assets or securities are all examples of investing activities.

A company's poor performance is frequently indicated by negative cash flow. Negative cash flow from investing activities, however, could be the result of significant sums of money being spent on things like R&D that are essential to the company's long-term success.

It's crucial to understand where an organization's investment activity fits into its financial statements before analyzing the various positive and negative cash flows from investing activities.

The balance sheet gives a summary of the assets, liabilities, and owner equity of a company as of a particular date. An overview of the company's earnings and outlays for a time period is given by the income statement. By displaying how much money is made or spent on operating, investing, and financing activities over a given time period, the cash flow statement fills the gap between the income statement and the balance sheet.

Thus, $200,000 is cash flow to creditors.

For more information on Cash Flow, refer to the given link:

brainly.com/question/28238360

#SPF4

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A company started the year with "$185,000 of goods finished" and ready for sale. During the year, a total of $700,000 of goods w
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

$110,000

Explanation:

The closing balance in the finished goods inventory account is a function of the opening balance and the net movement that occurred during the year.

As such, the closing balance

= opening balance + purchases/production - sales

Given;

opening balance = $185,000

purchases/production = $550,000

sales = $625,000

Therefore,

closing balance in the finished goods = $185,000 + $550,000 - $625,000

= $110,000

6 0
3 years ago
By themselves, ________ do not measure the financial performance of an ad campaign. But they are useful for evaluating many of t
Genrish500 [490]

Answer:

Click through rate

Explanation:

Click-through rate (CTR) are used to measure many of the decisions that go into a campaign, such as keyword selection and ad copy because the numbers of users who click on the advert link to the number of all total users who has either view the page of the advertisement and It is used to measure the success of an online advertising campaign for a website as well as how effective email campaigns are, by measuring or evaluating the numbers of people who actually saw the advert and click on the link of the advert that is why click through rate do not measure the performance of an advert campaign but rather useful to evaluate many of the decisions that go into a campaign.

Therefore the higher the click-through rate of an advert the more successful the advert has been in generating interest.

7 0
3 years ago
Several years ago, The Wall Street Journal reported that the winner of the Massachusetts State Lottery prize had the misfortune
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

the present value of the annuity = $4,523,638

Explanation:

this is an ordinary annuity:

annual payment = $9,420,713 / 20 = $471,035.65

number of periods = 19 periods

interest rate = 8%

therefore, the present value annuity factor = 9.6036

the present value of the annuity = $471,035.65 x 9.6036 = $4,523,637.97 ≈ $4,523,638

4 0
3 years ago
Equipment was purchased for $60,000. Freight charges amounted to $2,800 and there was a cost of $8,000 for building a foundation
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

a. $11,760. 

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

Cost of asset = $60,000 + $8,000 + $2,800 = $70,800

($78,800 - $12,000) / 5 = $11,760. 

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
A key distinction between a risk response and a contingency plan is A. A risk response is established only for moderate risks wh
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is the option B: A risk response is part of the actual implementation plan and action is taken before the risk can materialize, while a contingency plan goes into effect only after the risk has transpired.

Explanation:

On the one hand, a <em>risk response</em> involves the process of controlling risks that are already known by the people who make the plan in the first place and therefore that this type of concept includes the idea of doing something before the worst happen and therefore to avoid the risks.

On the other hand, a <em>contingency plan</em> involves the process of planning for an unexpected situation that did not happen before and was not established in the original plan, therefore that this type of concept includes the idea of acting over the margin due to the exceptional situation that occurs.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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