1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
jenyasd209 [6]
3 years ago
8

Why did the Confederacy pass the Conscription Acts?

History
1 answer:
valentinak56 [21]3 years ago
7 0

The confederacy passed the conscription act because the army needed more people to serve in the army as the number of volunteers declines and the number of casualties increased.

Explanation

At the beginning of the civil war,both the confederate states and the union army did not use conscription but in the later years the war took a violent turn.People hesitated to join the army and the number of soldiers in the confederate army decreased visibly.

In order to avoid defeat in the war, the confederate army wanted more men to join it and they enacted the act of conscription which made it necessary for all white men between the age of 18 and 35 to serve in the confederate army if called.

You might be interested in
The most important thing about the New Deal was…
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

The New Deal restored a sense of security as it put people back to work. It created the framework for a regulatory state that could protect the interests of all Americans, rich and poor, and thereby help the business system work in more productive ways

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What reason did Taney give for why he believed Dred Scott was an enslaved person
Svetradugi [14.3K]
Drett scott was considered property and the court can not take away property.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Liberty may be endangered by the abuse of liberty, but also by the abuse of power…The truth is that all men having power ought t
Naddika [18.5K]
What is your question?
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Part I. A Picture Representing Reconstruction (50 Points)
Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

Definitely the second one ;D

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Why is the ability to grow sugar in Britain and France
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

The ability to grow sugar in Britain and France is an important concept as it eliminates the dependency on other regions for sugar. Also, it allows Britain and France to be able to grow a surplus of sugar and eventually implement it into their global market for trade and profit.

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • In the election of 1824, supporters of Andrew Jackson accused John Quincy Adams of winning the election through a "corrupt barga
    5·1 answer
  • 2 PUNTIS
    11·1 answer
  • What (description) was the land area that the northwest ordinance of 1787 cover?
    13·1 answer
  • 2. What was the most significant social and political impact of Reformation ideas on Europe?
    8·1 answer
  • Quais produtos foram explorados por Portugal na colonia?
    7·2 answers
  • In five to seven sentences, summarize your understanding of how the United States is changing. Be sure to use examples from the
    13·2 answers
  • How did the Berlin Wall come to represent the struggle of the Cold War? In other words,
    8·1 answer
  • Justinian's Code covered what?
    8·1 answer
  • Which statement best explains why Florida and New York have the same number of electoral votes
    14·1 answer
  • How did some Islamic groups respond to the presence of US troops in Saudi Arabia before September 11, 2001?
    7·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!