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Pachacha [2.7K]
1 year ago
5

Explain the concept of the time value of money.

Business
1 answer:
telo118 [61]1 year ago
7 0

Time value of money (TVM) is the concept that an amount of money today is worth more than the same amount of money in the future because of the potential for earnings. This is a basic principle of finance. Money in hand has more value than the same money paid in the future.

Time value of money. Simply put, the value of a given amount of money today is worth more than it will be worth tomorrow. This is not due to temporal uncertainty, it is simply due to timing. The difference between the value of money today and tomorrow is called the time value of money.

Learn more about the time value of money here:brainly.com/question/3811399
#SPJ4

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Contribution Margin Ratio, Variable Cost Ratio, Break-Even Sales Revenue The controller of Ashton Company prepared the following
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

1.  73 %

2. 27 %

3. $60,000

4. Ways to increase projected operating income without increasing total sales revenue :

  1. Reduce the variable costs per unit
  2. Reduce fixed overheads

Explanation:

Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution / Sales × 100

Where,

Contribution = Sales - Variable Costs

                     = $88,000 - $23,760

                     = $64,240

Then,

Contribution Margin Ratio = $64,240/ $88,000 × 100

                                           = 73 %

Variable Cost Ratio = Variable Cost / Sales × 100

                                = $23,760 / $88,000 × 100

                                = 27 %

Break-even sales revenue = Fixed Costs ÷  Contribution Margin Ratio

                                            = $43,800 ÷ 0.73

                                            = $60,000

<u>Ways to increase projected operating income without increasing total sales revenue :</u>

  1. Reduce the variable costs per unit
  2. Reduce fixed overheads
7 0
2 years ago
On January​ 2, 2017, Kellogg Corporation acquired equipment for​$800,000. The estimated life of the equipment is 5 years or​ 80,
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

Book value of the asset = $484,000

Explanation:

Given:

Equipment cost = $800,000

Residual value = $10,000

Computation:

Depreciation = (Equipment cost - Residual value) /  Life

Depreciation = ($800,000 - $ 10,000) / 5

Depreciation = $ 158,000 per year

Depreciation for 2 year =$ 158,000 x 2

Depreciation for 2 year = $316,000

Book value of the asset = Equipment cost - Depreciation for 2 year

Book value of the asset = $800,000 - $316,000

Book value of the asset = $484,000

6 0
2 years ago
Dividends received for equity securities in which the investor lacks the ability to participate in the decisions of the investee
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

When the investor does not have decision- making power in the business, his dividend payment process is not different from any other shareholder.

When profits are declared the company debits Retained Earnings (profits) for the divedend amount, and credited to Dividends Payable.

Dividend Payable is then debitted and Cash will be credited to show money has gone out.

4 0
3 years ago
You want to accumulate $1 million by your retirement date, which is 25 years from now. You will make 25 deposits in your bank, w
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

First deposit will be $11,213.87

Explanation:

To derive how much the first deposit must be, the deposit can be derived by using payment formula for growing annuity

P = FV x (r - g) / [(1 + r)^n - (1 + g)^n]

When FV = $1,000,000

r = 7%

g = 3%

n = 25

Hence, First payment will be:

P = 1,000,000 * (7% - 3%) / (1.07^25 - 1.03^25)

P = 1,000,000 * 4% / 5.427433 - 2.093778

P = 40,000 / 3.333655

P = 11998.842

P = $11,998.84

However, this formula is applicable when the payments are made at the end of the year. In this case the payments are upfront, occurring today. We need to adjust this first payment to reflect the early payment.

Hence, first payment = $11,998.84  / (1 + 7%)

First payment =  $11,998.84  / (1 + 0.07)

First payment = $11,998.84  / 1.07

First payment = 11213.8691588785

First payment = $11,213.87

7 0
3 years ago
Required information E12-3 Understanding the Computation of Cash Flows from Operating Activities (Indirect Method) [LO 12-2] [Th
kompoz [17]

Answer:

Net income = $320

Net cash flow from Operating activity = $145

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1. Cash A/c Dr $485

        To Service revenue A/c $485

(Being sales service is provided for cash)

2. Salary expense A/c Dr $165

   Outstanding salary expense A/c Dr $175

              To Salary and wages payable A/c  $340

(Being salary expense is recorded)

Salary and wages payable A/c  $340

       To Cash $340

(Being salary and wages are paid)

The net cash flow from operating activities would be

= Service revenue - salaries and wages payable

= $485 - $340

= $145

The net income would be

= Sales - salary expense

= $485 - $165

= $320

Cash flow from Operating activities under the indirect method  

Net income $320

Less: Decrease in salary payable - $175

Net Cash flow from Operating activities $145

4 0
3 years ago
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