Answer:
The multiple choices are as follows:
18.6%
14.0%
22.8%
25.0%
The second option is the correct answer,14%
Explanation:
The capital asset pricing asset model formula for computing a firm's cost of equity according to Miller and Modgiliani is given below:
Ke=Rf+Beta*(Mr-Rf)
Rf is the risk free of 2% which is the return expected from zero risk investment such as government treasury bills.
Beta is how risky an investment in a company is compared to similar businesses operating in similar business sector of the company given as 2.0
Mr is the expected return on market portfolio which 8%
Ke=2%+2*(8%-2%)
Ke=2%+2*(6%)
Ke=2%+12%=14%
Answer: D. A & C
Explanation:
A long term liability is one that is due to be paid in a period longer than a year. The loan is due in less than a year so the only way to classify it as a long term liability is to make it a loan that will extend past a year. This can be done through refinancing which is to replace the current loan with another loan.
Karin's company therefore would need to demonstrate that the obligation can be refinanced on a long-term basis by them and they must also have the intention to do so as well.
<u>Calculation of Days Payable Outstanding:</u>
Days Payable Outstanding can be calculated using the following formula:
Days Payable Outstanding = (Accounts
Payable *365) / Cost of Goods Sold
= (8,773*365)/45,821
= 69.88
Hence, Days Payable Outstanding is 69.88 days. We can say that it takes on average<u> 69.88 </u>days to the company to pay off its suppliers during the year.
Based on the information given the current ratio is:1.4.
<h3>Current ratio</h3>
Using this formula
Current ratio=Current assets/Current liabilites
Where:
Current assets=$191,800
Current liabilities=$137,000
Let plug in the formula
Current ratio=$191,800/$137,000
Current ratio = 1.4
Inconclusion the current ratio is:1.4.
Learn more about current ratio here:brainly.com/question/2686492
The correct answer is exchange or trade
