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2 years ago

The traditional view of american diversity emphasized the concept of assimilation, which for many groups meant?

Business

1 answer:

gregori [183]2 years ago

7 0

The correct answer is true.

Minority communities have been forced to adopt Anglo-American culture and give up their traditions as a result of assimilation.

<h3>In terms of cultural plurality, what is assimilation?</h3>

In anthropology and sociology, assimilation refers to the process through which people or groups with different ethnic ancestries are assimilated into the dominant culture of a community.

<h3>What does assimilating into American society entail?</h3>

Assimilation is a hotly debated idea in which immigrant groups are urged, through social and cultural practices and/or political maneuvers, to embrace the culture, values, and social behaviors of the host country in order to gain full citizenship status.

To know more about Assimilation , visit:

brainly.com/question/14313590

#SPJ4

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A government bond with a coupon rate of 5% makes semiannual coupon payments on January 7 and July 7 of each year. The Wall Stree

Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

The value of the bond is 1,003.8771 after subtracting the accrued interest to the market value of the bond.

Explanation:

From the amount provide by the Wall Street Journal there are two component, the bonds value and the interest accrued over time.

we should calcualte the interst and subtract to get the bond value:

principal x rate x time = interest

rate and time should match, so the 5% rate should be convert into a 2.5% rate and we express time as portion of 182 days:

1,000 x 0.025 x (22-7)/182 = 2,060439 = 2.060439 interest

1,005.9375 - 2.0604 = <em>1,003.8771</em>

5 0

3 years ago

Charisma, Inc., has debt outstanding with a face value of $6 million. The value of the firm if it were entirely financed by equi

Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

$660,000

Explanation:

According to M & M proportion I with taxes, the value of the levered firm is:

V (Firm) = V (Equity) + V (Debt)

= $28,400,000 + 0.25(6,000,000)

= $28,400,000 + $1,500,000

= $29,900,000

Total market value of the firm:

= Market value of the debt + Market value of equity

= $6,000,000 + stock outstanding × Selling price per share

= $6,000,000 + 415,000 × $56 per share

= $29,240,000

With non-marketed claims, such as bankruptcy costs, we would expect the two values to be the same.

The differences are the non-marketed claims:

Expected bankruptcy costs = $29,900,000 - $29,240,000

= $660,000

4 0

3 years ago

Final Examination Hide or show questions Calculator Problem 9-23 (b) (LO. 2) Ricardo, who is self-employed, uses his automobile

Anna35 [415]

Answer:

Explanation:

a) actual cost method:-

=deductions × percentage

= 345 + 205 + 85% (2800 + 275 + 180 + 1890 +3600 +4125 )

=550 + 10939.5

=11489.5 = 11490

Note :- fines are not taken.

b) automatic mileage method:-

=total number of business miles × standard rate

=32200×0.58 +345+205

=19226

5 0

3 years ago

Mr. & Mrs. Dart own a majority of the outstanding capital stock of Wall Corp., Black Co., and West, Inc. During 2010, Wall a

weqwewe [10]

Answer:

The amount that would be reported as receivables from affiliates is $0.

Explanation:

Here Mr and Mrs Dart owns a majority of shares of Wall corp, Black co, and West inc. In 2010 , wall made advanced cash to black($50,000) and west($80,000) and also west made advance to black($70,000).

While preparing the combined balance sheet for all these company's , any amount of account receivables will not be included because preparing a combined balance sheet is same as making consolidated balance sheet , were any inter company profit or losses , account receivables and payable are not included in the balance sheet , so therefore the amount that would be reported as receivables from affiliates is $0.

7 0

3 years ago

Riley Company promises to pay Janet Anderson or her estate $150,000 per year for the next 10 years, even if she leaves the compa

Jlenok [28]

Answer:

The Answer is explanatory so it is given as under:

Explanation:

<u>Part 1. At the start of the year:</u>

The part of the salary includes $150,000 per year for the next 10 years and this must be recorded as an deferred compensation liability. All we have to do is to calculate the present value of the annual salary payments.

Present Value = Annual Payment * Annuity factor

And for Annuity factor we will use 5% rate of interest.

Annuity Factor = (1 - (1-r)^n) / r

Here

r = 5%

n = 10 years

Which means

Annuity Factor = (1 - (1 + 5%)^10) / 5% = 7.722

Hence

Present value = $150,000 * 7.722 = $1,158,260

So the journal entry would be as under:

Dr Deferred Compensation expense $1,158,260

Cr Deferred Compensation Liability $1,158,260

At the first year end, the annual payment of $1,158,260 will be discounted back by using the following formula:

Discounted Back Amount = Annual Amount * (1- (1+r)^n)

Remember for the first year n is 10, for second n is 9 and so on.

Discounted Back Amount = 150,000 x (1 - 0.614) = $57,913

Dr Deferred Compensation Expense $57,913

Cr Deferred Compensation Liability $57,913

Part 3. And when the first payment of the salary is made, the journal entry would be:

Dr Deferred compensation Liability $ 150,000

Cr Cash Account $150,000

Likewise we will till the year 10 and will record the part 2 and part 3 until at the end of the year 10, the whole of the deferred tax liability is reduced to zero.

The life insurance policy payments can not be offset against the deferred compensation liability because it will be accounted for as a different transaction and hence must not be treated as Riley desires.

So the Cash surrender value will be treated as an asset and annual increase in this asset would be treated as an income.

5 0

3 years ago