<span>Yes
because the AICPA standard for due care does not require CPAs to be infallible.
Since the definition of infallible means incapable of making a mistake. Which
this is not necessarily true. CPAs are capable of making mistakes and as long
as they performed their work with professional due care then they cannot be
held accountable for mistakes that may have happened. </span>
Answer: Data gap analysis.
Explanation:
A Data gap analysis occurs when an organization evaluates it's available data, and seek methods of improving data collection to meet up with business expectations. Data gap analysis is done to ensure that, an organization has the right information to enable them run operations effectively.
Answer:
Value of S=$25000.
Explanation:
Value of P= $75000
Value of n= 5 years
Value of AOC= $36000+ $1500k (k=1 to 5)
Since the salvage value would be after 5 years=
S=($75000- $10000*5) = $75000- $50000= $25000.
Value of S=$25000.
Answer:
(a) 0; 0
(b) $150 per hour; $16.67 per hour
(c) (b) $150 per hour; $53.57 per hour
Explanation:
(a) Number of hours = 125
Marginal cost = 0 (since service is cost less upto 200 hours)
Average cost = 0
(b) Number of hours = 225
Marginal cost = $150 per hour
Total cost = $150 × (225 - 200)
= $150 × 25
= $3,750
Average cost = Total cost ÷ Number of hours
= $3,750 ÷ 225
= $16.67 per hour
(c) Number of hours = 325
Marginal cost = $150 per hour
Total cost = $150 × (325 - 200)
= $150 × 125
= $18,750
Average cost = Total cost ÷ Number of hours
= $18,750 ÷ 325
= $53.57 per hour
Answer:
e) $37.05
Explanation:
Using the dividend growth model, the value of a stock is the present value of the future dividends receivable discounted at the required rate of return . The required rate of return is given as 12%.
So we discount the year 3 dividend using the dividend growth model formula
P = D (1+g)/r-g
r- rate of return, g = growth rate
Present value of the future dividends:
PV of Year 1 = 1.55(1.015)m × 1.12^(-1)
= 1.4047
PV of Year 2 = 1.55 (1.015)(1.015) × 1.12^(-2)
= 1.27
PV of Year 3 (this will be done in two steps)
Step 1; PV (in yr 2) of year 3 dividend
= (1.55)(1.015)^2×(1.08)/(0.12-0.08)
=43.114
Step 2 : PV (in yr 2) of year 3 dividend
=43.114 × (1.12^(-2))
= 34.37
Best estimate of stock = 1.40 + 1.27 +34.37
= $37.05
Note
To discount the year 3 dividend, we use two steps. The first stp helps get the PV in year 2, and step 3 helps to take it further to the PV in year 0
