Answer:
a) Binomial.
b) n=20, p=0.01, k≥2
The probability hat a package sold will be refunded is P=0.0169.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) We know that
- the defective probability is constant and independent.
- the sample size is bigger than one subject.
The most appropiate distribution to represent this random variable is the binomial.
b) The parameters are:
- Sample size (amount of clips in the package): n=20
- Probability of defective clips: p=0.01.
- number of defective clips that trigger the money-back guarantee: k≥2
The probability of the package being refunded can be calculated as:
Answer:
FV= PV*(1+i)^t
Step-by-step explanation:
Giving the following information:
Initial investment (PV)= $2,000
Interest rate (i)= 3.2% = 0.032
Number of periods= t
<u>To calculate the future value (FV) of the investment, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^t
F<u>or example, Susan invests for 4 years:</u>
FV= 2,000*(1.032^4)
FV= $2,268.55
Answer:
2: 99° 3: 81° 4: 81°
Step-by-step explanation:
2 is supplementary to 1 so subtract 81 from 180 = 99.
3 is vertical angle with 1 so they are equal
4 is alternate interior angle with 3 so they are equal
hope this helps stay safe :)
Answer:
5 ft melinda
Step-by-step explanation:
5 inches is like the length of your hand
Answer
Find out the m∠6 .
To prove
As given
a∥e , m∥n , and m∠2 = 112°.
As m∥n
a is the transversal (A line that cuts across two or more (usually parallel) lines is called transverasl.)
Thus
∠ 2 = ∠3 ( Corresponding angle property )
∠3 = 112°
Also
a∥e and m is transversal .
∠ 3 = ∠6 = 112 ° ( Corresponding angle property )
Therefore
∠6 = 112°
