Answer:
600,000
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
its down 1 over 2 each time
(f.g)(x) = f (g(x))= f ( x^4+3)
= (x^4+3)^2 + 2 ( x^4+3) - 6
= x^8 + 9 + 6x^4 + 2x^4 + 6-6
= x^8 + 8x^4+9
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given zeros as x=-4, x=-2
so, we can set up function as
Vertex is at (-1,3)
It means that graph passes through point (-1,3)
so, we can plug x=-1 and f(x)=3
and then we can solve for 'a'
we get
now, we can plug it back
and we get
now, we can simplify it
Answer: She started with $160.
It will take 6 weeks before she has less than half of what she originally invested.
Step-by-step explanation:
If her money is decreasing in value by 11% each week, it means that the rate at which it is decreasing is exponential.
We would apply the formula for exponential decay which is expressed as
A = P(1 - r)^t
Where
A represents the value of the investment after t weeks.
t represents the number of weeks.
P represents the initial value of the investment.
r represents rate of depreciation.
From the information given,
A = $142.40
r = 11% = 11/100 = 0.11
t = 1
Therefore
142.40 = P(1 - 0.11)^1
142.40 = P(0.89)
P = 142.4/0.89
P = 160
For her to have half of what she invested originally, then
80 = 160(0.89)^t
80/160 = (0.89)^t
0.5 = (0.89)^t
Taking log of both sides to base 10
Log 0.5 = log0.89^t = tlog0.89
- 0.3010 = - 0.051t
t = - 0.3010/- 0.051
t = 5.9
Approximately 6 weeks
