Answer:
creativity
Explanation:
i'm in art design and my teacher always pushes for creativity and neatness
Answer:II. exclude interest expense.
III. include the depreciation tax shield related to the project.
Explanation: pro forma free cash flow is a term used to estimate the amount of inflows(revenue/income) or outflows (expenses) expected to be made in future projects and engagements of a business entity. It helps the business to plan appropriately to forestall any eventualities.
Pro forma free cash flows should exclude interest rate in its estimation and it should also include the depreciation tax shield related to the project.
<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
(a). Firm in perfect competition produces at minimum efficient scale, MEC where average cost AC is minimum. The price is determined by the market supply and demand.
(b) Note that q1 is at the minimum of AC while Q* is to the left of q1. Similarly, P1 is equal to MC while P* is higher than MC. This shows that firms in perfect competition produce more and charge less than the firms in monopolistically competitive market.
(c) All firms in monopolistically competitive market as well as perfectly competitive market earn zero economic profit in the long run. This is because there is a free entry and exit
(d) Demand is steeper for firms in monopolistically competitive market so that demand is elastic. Demand is horizontal for any quantity which means it is perfectly elastic for a firm in competitive market.
Answer:
The investment adviser first buys the shares for its customer accounts and then places the order necessary to buy the shares for its proprietary account
Explanation:
Since buying a large position for the adviser's customers might tend to push the price of the stock up, the adviser cannot benefit from this by "front running" the customer orders by placing an order to buy the stock for its proprietary account just before placing the big customer orders to buy. The best procedure is to buy the stock for the customers first and then for the adviser's proprietary account. Remember that the adviser is a fiduciary who must place his clients' interests first.
Answer:
Wages Expense debit $8,000
Wages Payable credit $8,000
Explanation:
At the end of December 31, which is a Thursday, workers would have worked 4 days out of a 5-day week, which implies we need to recognize wages for the 4 days because it has been incurred even not yet paid
Wages for 4-days=$10,000*4/5
Wages for 4-days=$8,000
We would debit wages account with $8,000 since an increase in an expense account is a debit entry while wages payable would be credited since it is an increase in liabilities
