Answer: IFRS permits the classification of cash outflows for interest expense under operating or financing based on which one results in better cash flows from operating activities.
Explanation: The cash flow statement includes only inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents; it excludes transactions that do not directly affect cash receipts and payments. These non-cash transactions include depreciation or write-offs on bad debts or credit losses to name a few.
Answer:
S/N ACCOUNT DEBIT CREDIT
1 Equipment $22,000
Cash $22,000
Being payment for new component expected to increase the
equipment’s productivity by 10% a year
2. Equipment Repairs expenses $6,250
Cash $6,250
Being payment for equipment repair
3. Equipment $14,870
Cash $14,870
Being payment for equipment repair to prolong the useful life
the asset
Explanation:
The initial cost incurred in acquiring an asset is debited to asset account, subsequently every other cost spent on the assets are either expenses against the earning of that period or expensed over many years over the useful life of the asset.
Capitalization is the recognition of an expense as an asset in the balance sheet rather than expenses in the income statement.
The payment of $22,000 paid for the equipment productivity must be capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset because it is a cost that is expected to increase the equipment’s productivity by 10% a year.
The $6,250 paid for normal repair is a revenue items which is to be expensed against the earning of that period.
The $14,870 paid for repairs which will increase the useful life of the equipment from four to five years is a capital expenditure which should capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset.
There are video tutorials online. It might be a lot easier to understand it if you see it, rather than read it. Hope this helps! :)
Answer:
The correct answer is the option A: the company's present business offer attractive growth opportunities and can be counted on to create economic value for shareholders.
Explanation:
To begin with, the fact that a company faces the dilemma between continue with the current business lineup or change it in order to begin producing a new one by starting from zero then a lot of variables must be taken care of and considered, that is, that at the moment of making the final decision the managers must understand the opportunity costs that can affect the organization and moreover the benefits that the actual lineup makes. That is why, that at the time of sticking with the current business lineup it makes sense to continue with the current one when the company's present business offer attractive growth opportunities and can be counted on to create economic value for shareholders.
Answer:
5.71%
Explanation:
The after tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-t)
where t is the tax rate of 35% or 0.35
pretax cost of debt=yield to maturity
The yield to maturity can be determined using rate formula in excel as below:
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bonds i.e 12 coupons in 12 years
pmt is the annual coupon=$1000*9.5%=$95
pv is the current market price-flotation cost=$1,100-$48=$1052
fv is the face value of $1000
=rate(12,95,-1052,1000)=8.78%
After tax cost of debt=8.78%
*(1-0.35)=5.71%