Answer:
The first option is not true about feudalism. The reason: West and Central Europe had large distribution networks even before X century. Besides, during XVIII-XI centuries, social mobility among some regions of Europe was not common.
In addition to that, the Crusades and the subsequent conflicts in Middle-East changed some of the of the commercial dynamics during Middle Age. Furthermore, in Central Asia, the end of the Mongol Empire in XIII century and the ottoman expansion helped to the closure of the Silk Road, which was the biggest commercial route between Far East and Europe.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Before the Industrial Revolution there were not any machinery to make products for us. They would have to instead hand sew cloth together to make clothing
Paine connected independence with common dissenting Protestant beliefs as a means to present a distinctly American political identity and structured Common Sense as if it were a sermon. Historian Gordon S. Wood described Common Sense as "the most incendiary and popular pamphlet of the entire revolutionary era."
Maybe it means that there’s a difference between how much land they own or something. It says there was a difference between the amount of land they occupied and the amount of land they couldn’t control. So maybe they didn’t own/have a lot of land but there was a lot of land they couldn’t get to/take over etc. or maybe this situation could be vice versa so they have a ton of land but only a little isn’t “controlled” let me know if this helps sorry if it’s confusing I’m just guessing based on the context clues :)
