Answer:
the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each bit is independent from the others , then the random variable X= number of 0 s in the code word follows a binomial distribution, where
p(X)= n!/((n-x)!*x!*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= number of independent bits=5
x= number of 0 s
p= probability that a bit is 0 = 0.8
then for x=1
p(1) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1) = 5*0.8*0.2^4 = 0.0064 (0.64%)
therefore the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
There are two types of interest: Simple interest and compounding interest:
Simple interest: F = P(1+in)
Compounding interest: F = P(1+i)ⁿ
The compounding interest is always bigger than simple interest for a given amount of n time. The effective interest rate is
Effective interest rate = 1.5%/year * 1 yr/12 months = 0.125% per month
Since there are 12 months in 1 year, n= 12. Then i = 0.125/100 = 0.00125
Difference = Compounded Interest - Simple Interest
Difference = P(1+i)ⁿ - P(1+in) = 1000(1+0.00125)¹² - 1000(1+0.00125*12)
Difference = $0.104
You will only have $0.104 more money than the simple interest.
Answer:
2.4*10^4
Step-by-step explanation:
write in scientific notation
first i would simplify the 3.6/1.5
=2.4
then you get (2.4*10^7)/10^3
formula: (m^x)/(m^y)= m^(x-y)
(2.4*10^7)/10^3
=2.4*10^(7-3)/1
=2.4*10^4
