Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Given the above information, the average debtor days is computed as seen below.
= Total receivables / Credit sales × 365
Total receivables = $246,000
Credit sales $2,430,000
Then,
Average debtor days
= $246,000 / $2,430,000 × 365
= 36.95 days
Hence, it would take 36.95 days on the average for credit customers to pay off their debts during this past year
Answer:
B) Sales and cost of goods sold should be reduced by the intercompany sales.
Explanation:
When a parent company consolidates its financial statements with its subsidiaries, it has to eliminate all the transactions involving intercompany sales.
In this case, Perez Inc. must adjust its consolidated financial statements by reducing the sales revenue and COGS of the transaction it made with Senior Inc. (its subsidiary).
Answer:
Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act
Explanation:
The Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act (GLBA), also known as the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999, (enacted November 12, 1999) is an act of the 106th United States Congress (1999–2001). It repealed part of the Glass–Steagall Act of 1933, removing barriers in the market among banking companies, securities companies and insurance companies that prohibited any one institution from acting as any combination of an investment bank, a commercial bank, and an insurance company. With the bipartisan passage of the Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act, commercial banks, investment banks, securities firms, and insurance companies were allowed to consolidate. Furthermore, it failed to give to the SEC or any other financial regulatory agency the authority to regulate large investment bank holding companies. The legislation was signed into law by President Bill Clinton.
Answer:
$30,604
Explanation:
The computation of the interest expense for the year 2020 is as follows:
2019 interest expense is
= Equipment amount × rate of interest
= $311,967 × 9%
= $28,077
The Dec 31 2019 liability of book value is
= $311,967 + $28,077
= $340,044
Now the interest expense for the year 2020 is
= $340,044 × 0.09
= $30,604
Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
