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zhenek [66]
3 years ago
7

Krumple Inc. produces aluminum cans. Production of 12-ounce cans has a standard unit quantity of 4.7 ounces of aluminum per can.

During the month of April, 450,000 cans were produced using 1,875,000 ounces of aluminum. The actual cost of aluminum was $0.10 per ounce and the standard price was $0.08 per ounce. There are no beginning or ending inventories of aluminum.
Required:Calculate the total variance for aluminum for the month of April. Enter amount as a positive number and select Favorable or Unfavorable.
Business
1 answer:
Tems11 [23]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

-$18,300(Unfavorable)

Explanation:

Material price per variance:

= Ounces of aluminium used in production(Standard price - Actual cost per ounce)

=  1,875,000 ($0.08 - $0.10)

= 1,875,000 × (-$0.02)

= -$37,500 (Unfavorable)

Material usage variance:

=  [(Cans produced × Standard unit quantity) -  Ounces of aluminium used in production] × Standard price

= [(4,50,000 × 4.7) -  1,875,000] × 0.08

= $19,200 (Favorable)

Therefore,

Total variance = Material price per variance + Material usage variance

                        = -$37,500 + $19,200

                        = -$18,300(Unfavorable)

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Vladimir79 [104]
I think the answer is a term insurance
7 0
4 years ago
Preferences are characterized generally by: A. income. B. consumption bundles. C. indifference curves. D. budget constraints.
damaskus [11]

Answer:

B. consumption bundles

Explanation:

Customer preference is defined as the likes and dislikes that a customer has that determines his choice in making purchases.

For exams a customer may want to buy shoes that are black in colour, but shoes that are yellow in colour are ignored.

Preferences of buyers are independent not prices and income level.

Rather it is dependent on consumption bundle. That is the set of goods that will give highest satisfaction to the buyer.

4 0
3 years ago
g You will be receiving cash flows of: $2,000 today, $3,000 at end of year 1, $5,000 at end of year 3, and $7,000 at end of year
enot [183]

Answer:

The present value of the cashflows will be $12830.30

Explanation:

The present value of the cashflows can be calculated by dividing the cash flows by the appropriate discount rate and for the appropriate time period.

The present value of the given cash flows will be,

Present Value = CF1 / (1+r) + CF2 / (1+r)^2 + .... + CFn / (1+r)^n

As the first payment is received today, it will already be in the present value so it will not be discounted.

Present value = 2000 + 3000 /  (1+0.1) + 5000 / (1+0.1)^3 + 7000 / (1+0.1)^5

Present value = $12830.295 rounded off to $12830.30

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jmes Graham Manufacturing is a small manufacturer that uses machine-hours as its
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Company - Job 62 - Job 63

Direct materials: $60,000 - $4,500 - $7,100

Direct labor: $25,000 - $2,500 - $4,200

overhead costs $72,000

Machine hours: 90,000 - 1,350 - 3,100

During 2019, the actual machine-hours totaled 95,000, and actual overhead costs were $71,000. Job 62 consisting of 1,000 units and Job 63 consisting of 2000 units were completed during the month.

A) To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 72,000/90,000

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  0.8 per machine-hour

B) Total manufacturing cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Job 62:

Total manufacturing cost= 4,500 + 2,500 + 0.8*1,350

Total manufacturing cost= $8,080

Job 63:

Total manufacturing cost= 7,100 + 4,200 + 0.8*3,100

Total manufacturing cost= $13,780

C) Unitary cost= total cost/ number of units

Job 62:

Unitary cost= 8,080/1,000= $8.08

Job 63:

Unitary cost= 13,780/2,000= $6.89

D) First, we need to apply overhead for the company as a whole:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 0.8*95,000

Allocated MOH= $76,000

Now, we can calculate the over/under applied overhead:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 71,000 - 76,000

Overapplied overhead= $5,000

E) Job 62= 14,000

Job 63= 18,000

Gross profit= sales - cost of goods sold

Job 62:

Gross profit= 14,000 - 8,080= $5,920

Job 63:

Gross profit= 18,000 - 13,780= $4,220

7 0
3 years ago
Explain. Brainliest.
Rus_ich [418]
Alright, well look like this:

Public goods are goods that are open to anyone. They can’t turn down customers, and they can’t turn down even people who don’t pay.

Excludable goods means the people CAN turn away those who don’t pay. So, this is wrong.

Goods for a profit means that no matter what, they make money. Meaning those who can’t pay can still be turned away.

Privately owned goods can be turned away to and from anyone. This is also wrong.

Nonexcludable goods means that ANYONE can use this good or service, they aren’t for profit, they are non-rivalrous, etc. This is your answer.

<span>~Hope this helps!</span>

7 0
4 years ago
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