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Rom4ik [11]
1 year ago
13

Compute predetermined overhead rates and explain why estimated overhead costs (rather than actual overhead costs) are used in th

e costing process.
Business
1 answer:
Crazy boy [7]1 year ago
6 0

Why estimated overhead costs (rather than actual overhead costs) are used in the costing process is explained below.

A predetermined cost is an expenditure that a company estimates ahead of time.

This cost is calculated prior to the purpose of production and includes all variable costs that affect production in a manufacturing business.

Actual overhead costs are difficult to calculate for each job, especially in a production environment with a large number of jobs.

As a result, overhead costs are allocated according to some standardized methods, which may link overhead costs to direct labor, machining time, and material used in each job.

Manufacturing overhead in a manufacturing organization refers to indirect costs that are required for production but cannot be traced back to individual products.

Machine depreciation and factory rental are two examples of manufacturing overhead costs.

Hence, computation of predetermined overhead rates is given above.

Learn more about overhead:

brainly.com/question/26082424

#SPJ4

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J&J Foods wants to issue 5.4 percent preferred stock with a stated liquidating value of $100 a share. The company has determ
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

$65.85

Explanation:

Calculation for What should the offer price be

Using this formula

Offer price=(Preferred stock× Liquidating value)/Return

Let plug in the formula

Offer price = (0.054 × $100) / 0.082

Offer price=5.4/0.082

Offer price = $65.85

Therefore the offer price should be $65.85

3 0
2 years ago
What is the purpose of NCUA Lending Regulations?
Dafna11 [192]
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3 years ago
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M1 is comprised of currency held outside banks + traveler’s checks + __________.
leva [86]
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5 0
3 years ago
An economy is operating with output $400 billion above its natural level, and fiscal policymakers want to close this expansionar
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer: reduced by $80 billion

Explanation:

An expansionary gap is when the actual output is more than the potential output. From the question, we are told that an economy is operating with output $400 billion above its natural level, and fiscal policymakers want to close this expansionary gap and that the central bank agrees to adjust the money supply to hold the interest rate constant, so there is no crowding out.

We are also given the marginal propensity to consume is 4/5, and told that the price level is completely fixed in the short run.

To close the expansionary gap, the government would need to reduce its spending. To solve this, we have to calculate the multiplier. This will be:

Multiplier = 1/(1 - MPC)

= 1/(1 - 4/5)

= 1/1-0.8

= 1/0.2

= 5

Therefore, the government expenditure or spending will be reduced by:

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3 0
3 years ago
In the sales comparison approach, how is the appropriate unit of comparison chosen?
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

c. It depends on the appraisal problem. The appraiser should apply all appropriate units of comparison, explain differences in wide variation in the results, and choose the most reliable unit.

Explanation:

The three (3) main methods used for the valuation or appraisal of real-estate properties are;

I. Income approach.

II. Cost approach.

III. Sales comparison approach.

A sales comparison approach can be defined as a real-estate appraisal technique that is typically based on comparing a property to other recently sold real-estate properties with similar characteristics. Thus, this appraisal method or technique requires that the real-estate property being appraised should be in current use and fall within the same area or locality as the other recently sold real-estate properties.

In the sales comparison approach, the appraised property should mimic the market behavior of other real-estate properties sold recently.

5 0
2 years ago
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