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Rom4ik [11]
2 years ago
13

Compute predetermined overhead rates and explain why estimated overhead costs (rather than actual overhead costs) are used in th

e costing process.
Business
1 answer:
Crazy boy [7]2 years ago
6 0

Why estimated overhead costs (rather than actual overhead costs) are used in the costing process is explained below.

A predetermined cost is an expenditure that a company estimates ahead of time.

This cost is calculated prior to the purpose of production and includes all variable costs that affect production in a manufacturing business.

Actual overhead costs are difficult to calculate for each job, especially in a production environment with a large number of jobs.

As a result, overhead costs are allocated according to some standardized methods, which may link overhead costs to direct labor, machining time, and material used in each job.

Manufacturing overhead in a manufacturing organization refers to indirect costs that are required for production but cannot be traced back to individual products.

Machine depreciation and factory rental are two examples of manufacturing overhead costs.

Hence, computation of predetermined overhead rates is given above.

Learn more about overhead:

brainly.com/question/26082424

#SPJ4

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What are the things needed to do a work or activity called..​
34kurt

yesAnswer:

hekpls

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
During the​ year, direct labor costs of​ $30,000 were​ incurred, manufacturing overhead totaled ​$42,000, materials purchased we
andriy [413]

Answer:

Total Manufacturing Cost = $96,347

Explanation:

Total manufacturing cost include all the costs related directly to the production, and does not include any indirect costs, or cost of selling and administration.

Thus, for the information provided we have,

Since not provided assumed no opening and closing inventory.

Total manufacturing cost =

Direct Labor Cost $30,000

Add: Manufacturing Overhead $42,000

Add: Materials Purchased $27,000

Less: Indirect Material included = ($2,653)

Total Manufacturing Cost = $96,347

4 0
4 years ago
When Castle Corporation pays insurance premiums, the transaction is recorded as a debit to prepaid insurance. Additional informa
atroni [7]

Answer:

$227,500

Explanation:

The computation of the total amount of cash paid is shown below:

Cash paid for insurance premium = Prepaid Insurance at end of the year  + Prepaid Insurance recognized - Prepaid Insurance at the beginning of the year

= $61,250 + $218,750 - $52,500

= $227,500

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct amount of cash paid could come with respect to the insurance premium

5 0
4 years ago
A coupon bond that pays interest semiannually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 8 years, and has a yield to maturity of 6%.
vitfil [10]

Answer:

b. 1,062.81

Explanation:

the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:

price=\frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{1} }+ \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{2} } \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{3} }+...+\frac{principal+principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{n} }

where: principal as said before is the value lended, coupon is the rate of interest paid, i is the interest rate and n is the number of periods

so applying to this particular exercise, as it is not said we will assume that 6% and 7% are interest rate convertible seminually, so the price of the bond will be:

price=\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{1} } +\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{2} }+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{3} }+...+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{15} }+\frac{1,000+1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{16} }

price=1,062.81

take into account that here we are asked about semianually payments, so in 8 years there are 16 semesters.

6 0
4 years ago
Manufacturing overhead applied on the basis of direct labor-hours was $120,000, while actual manufacturing overhead incurred was
e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

D) Overhead was underapplied by $4,000.

Explanation:

Overhead is underapplied when the actual balance in the manufacturing overhead control account is larger than the balance in the applied manufacturing overhead account.

In this case, the balance of the manufacturing overhead control is $124,000 while the balance of the applied manufacturing overhead account is $120,000. This means that actual overhead costs were $4,000 higher than budgeted.

4 0
3 years ago
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