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Elis [28]
1 year ago
9

The question: Do you think the difference in means is due to the treatment of music while typing or has it occurred purely by ch

ance? explain your reasoning.

Mathematics
1 answer:
ankoles [38]1 year ago
3 0

if it concerns to the treatment of the music, the distribution would be distributed non uniformly, thus the difference must be by chance!

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Step-by-step explanation:

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