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arsen [322]
1 year ago
9

A company loses ​$75 as a result of a shipping delay. The owners of the company must share the loss equally. Write an expression

for the earnings per person. Evaluate the expression.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]1 year ago
5 0

Expression for the earnings per person = $75/n

What is loss?

The amount of loss on any commodity expressed as a percentage is referred to as the loss percentage. Additionally known as percentage loss. Any time a commodity's selling price is less than its cost price, we consider this to be a loss. The magnitude of this loss may be determined by calculating the difference between the cost price and the selling price. The loss percentage measures the loss as a proportion of the actual cost price.

Given: company loss=$75

no. of owners =n

The loss must be split evenly between the two business owners.

Therefore, we must split the sum of money in order to determine how much each individual receives.

=$75/n

Expression for the earnings per person = $75/numer of owners

To learn more about loss checkout brainly.com/question/29250253

#SPJ1

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12, 5, -7, 14/7, 9

Step-by-step explanation:

Integers are numbers that are either positive or negative and are whole numbers (no decimals).

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const2013 [10]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
A cone has a 4 radius and a 8 height what is the volume
Marta_Voda [28]

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

To find the volume of a cone, you multiply the base by the height and then divide by three.

First, we need to find the base. A cone has a circle for the base. To find the area of a circle, we square the radius and multiply it by pi (we will use 3.14).

4²=16

16×3.14= 50.24

Now, we multiply our base by the height.

50.24×8=401.92

Finally, we divide by three.

401.92÷3≈133.973 (to nearest thousandth)

Therefore, the volume of the cone is about 133.973 units cubed. If you were to use exact pi, it would be more like 134 because of all those decimals after pi!

Now you can find the volume of cones!

I hope that this helps! Have a wonderful day!

8 0
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shutvik [7]

\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}=\cos(x+y)

Let v=x+y, so that \dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}-1=\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}:

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Now the ODE is separable, and we have

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=\mathrm dx

Integrating both sides gives

\displaystyle\int\frac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=\int\mathrm dx

For the integral on the left, rewrite the integrand as

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Then

\displaystyle\int\frac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=-\cot v+\csc v+C

and so

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Given that y(0)=\dfrac\pi2, we find

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so that the particular solution to this IVP is

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svlad2 [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
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