1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Kitty [74]
1 year ago
5

Describe ONE economic impact that the mit’a system had on Europe in the period c. 1450-c. 1750.

History
1 answer:
igor_vitrenko [27]1 year ago
4 0

Due to the Mit'a system, the public service system flourished greatly during in Europe during the period c. 1450-c.1750.

The Mit'a system was invented by the Inca government. Once a person turned fifteen, they were obliged to participate in the Mit'a until they turned fifty.  All the people worked for the government for a given period, and this labor was free to the government.

Enormous construction of highways, the Emperor and nobles' house, monuments, temples, bridges, and mines were possible due to the Mit'a system. This is because people in the Inca period worked only 65 days a year for their basic necessities. The other extra time they had could thus be used for free service to the government.

Learn more about the Mit'a system:

brainly.com/question/10113738

#SPJ4

You might be interested in
How does democracy ensure the well-being of the people?
liubo4ka [24]

Answer: The answer is B

Explanation:

This because the people control the government.

5 0
3 years ago
City X has summers around 25 degrees centigrade and winters around 5
Ludmilka [50]

Sorry I'm late, but for other people with this question the answer is A: City Y is in the middle of a continent and City X is on the coast.

7 0
4 years ago
The republicans of the __________ wanted stronger state government, limited participation in government to certain qualified cit
Fudgin [204]
It is probably a faction of republicans called traditionalists
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Question 3 of 10
Over [174]

Answer:

English woman's property when she married came under the control of her husband.

Explanation:

According to married women property act, the property which was owned by women in the form of gift, investment or inheritance is naturally transferred to her husband. The law considers both legal and husband and wife to be a single entity and the husband absorbs her property.

After marriage, an English wife had all authority to own the property but she cannot control or manage it. For example, if she holds a land, she can possess the legal ownership but she cannot rent it or mortgage it or sell it.  

This act was later altered and affirmed that the wages earned by women should be treated as a separate property.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What did the Second Great Awakening do? Check all of the boxes that apply.
Harman [31]

Answer:

A, B and C

Explanation:

Its correct on edg

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • According to the cartoon what led to the growth of organized crime during prohibition
    13·1 answer
  • Explain the difference in opinions that De leon and Massanet had about the military presence at the missions.
    13·2 answers
  • List three ways that state government in the south resisted integration
    8·1 answer
  • How did the AAA effect city dwellers during the Great Depression?
    6·1 answer
  • The transcendentalist Henry David
    7·2 answers
  • The South fought the Civil War as which of the following?
    12·1 answer
  • When was the industrial revolution in america?
    10·1 answer
  • Infiere: ¿Qué relación pudo existir entre absolutismo y mercantilismo?
    13·1 answer
  • Question 7 of 20
    13·2 answers
  • ito ang ginamit na mga ninuno na imbakan ng mga sobrang pagkain at sisidlan sa mga buto ng kanilang mga yamao​
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!