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tankabanditka [31]
1 year ago
9

One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors. True or false?.

Business
1 answer:
Vika [28.1K]1 year ago
3 0

It is a true statement that one of use of a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.

<h3>What is a predetermined overhead rate?</h3>

It is also known as a plant-wide overhead rate. It refers to the calculation that is used to determine how much of the total manufacturing overhead cost will be attributed to each unit of product manufactured. This overhead rate is determined by dividing the fixed overhead cost by the estimated number of direct labor hours.

In conclusion, it is a true statement that one of use of a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors as it accounts and plans against such seasonal risk.

Read more about predetermined overhead rate

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Your boss would like your help on a marketing research project she is conducting on the relationship between the price of juice
djverab [1.8K]

Answer: The law of demand

Explanation:

The tabular representation (demand schedule is down below)

Price of Juice (Dollars per can)     Quantity Demanded(Billions of can)

2000                                                   0.5

1500                                                   0.75

1000                                                     1

750                                                      1.25

From the table above and the graphical representation attached, <u>the law of demand</u> is confirmed. The law of demand states that the price of a good and the quantity demanded are inversely proportional.

Notice that when the price of the juice increases, the demand decreases and when the price decreases, the demanded increases. This shows that majority of consumers will be more willing to make purchases when there is a decrease in price.

Check the attachment for the graphical representation.

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
In 2010, us nominal gdp was estimated to be $14.657 trillion dollars while the real gdp was estimated to be $13.245 trillion. wh
Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

Nominal gross domestic product (GDP) measures the market value of all the new and legal goods and services produced in a country within a year. While real GDP adjusts nominal GDP to inflation. Since inflation is generally positive, real GDP decreases as inflation increases. The higher the inflation rate, the larger the difference between nominal and real GDP. Depending on which year is used as base year (year 0), the difference that existed in 2010 can be either significant or not.

The difference = ($14,657 / $13,245) - 1 = 10.66%, which means that nominal GDP was 10.66% higher than real GDP. If the base year is 2000 or even 2005/6, the difference is very small since the accumulated inflation would only be 10.66% for all these years. But if the base year was 2008 or even 2009, then the inflation rate is high.

8 0
2 years ago
True or false? it adds to your credibility and your team's loyalty when you bring a person who is a difference maker into your c
Scilla [17]
That statement is true.
Bringing a difference maker shows that you're a leader who is not afraid to take necessary risk to achieve your goals, which make you seem really dependable and increase your team's loyalty. On top of that, bringing an appropriate difference maker also show your advance problem solving ability
7 0
3 years ago
What is the admirals feast for red lobster
jekas [21]

Answer:

Admiral's Feast Tuesday—Red Lobster's take on a classic fish fry. Enjoy Walt's Favorite Shrimp, bay scallops, clam strips and wild-caught flounder—all fried until perfectly crisp and golden

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you invest $100 today in a risk-free investment and let the 6 percent annual interest rate compound. What will be t
Kipish [7]

Solution :

It is given that :

Amount of investment or the principle amount , P = $ 100

Time of investment , t = 6 years

Rate of interest compounded annually r = 6 %

Therefore the future amount of this investment in a 6 year time is given by,

$FV=P(1+\frac{r}{100})^t

$FV=100(1+\frac{6}{100})^6

$FV=100(1+0.06)^6

$FV= 100 (1.4185)$

$FV=141$

Therefore, after 6 years the investment of $ 100 will give an amount of $ 141.

3 0
3 years ago
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