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Viktor [21]
2 years ago
3

describe the keynesian transmission mechanism for a decrease in the money supply. assuming that no liquidity trap exists, that i

nvestment is interest-sensitive, and that the economy is in the horizontal portion of the as curve, what happens to real gdp and the price level? how can you tell if this is a direct transmission mechanism or an indirect one?
Business
1 answer:
antiseptic1488 [7]2 years ago
5 0

The Keynesian Transmission mechanism for a decrease in the money supply occurs in three steps -

First, there is a decrease in money which leads to a rise in interest rates as competition for loanable funds tightens up.

Second, the rise in interest rates, makes borrowing costlier. Some investments become less profitable and crowd out. Investment spending falls.

Finally, a fall in investment causes aggregate spending to fall. This results in a greater decrease in output through the multiplier effect.

Based on the given conditions, there is a horizontal AS curve. This means that we are in the very short run/Keynesian zone of AS curve. This is so because of the supply perfectly prices elastic.

This can be attributed to the fact that wages are completely rigid and prices do not adjust at all. So due to a decrease in money supply, AD decreases and shifts to the left from AD1 to AD2. This causes output to fall from Y1 to Y2 with no change in price. Real GDP falls. Prices are unchanged.

The transmission mechanism is indirect here because the change in money supply impacts aggregate demand through interest rates.

Learn more about Keynesian Transmission here: brainly.com/question/14142239

#SPJ4

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The following questions are concerned with scenarios when conventional monetary policy is ineffective – typically during and in
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

Consider the following explanations

Explanation:

Question 2a)

Banks are required to keep some reserves with the central banks such that in case of bad times, the central bank would help the banks. However, individual banks are unable to meet the exact number of reserves after conducting their daily lending and borrowing exercises. This further leads to interbank transactions of unsecured loans. If a company defaults in the payment, then the banks associated with it, do not lend in the interbank market because the banks associated with the company will not get the repayments. This further leads to uncertainty for the other banks to lend further. There is a liquidity crunch and banks are facing difficulty in their normal functioning as there is a hindrance in loan making capabilities. As a result, the financial system freezes as no bank is willing to lend to other banks.

In this regard, the intervention of central banks becomes mandatory. The pumping of money in the market is the only way out to stabilize the tension in the interbank market. Although, the central bank intervention will cause a hole in the reserves but to stabilize the financial market is a risk that needs to be taken.

Question 2b)

When the financial system is struggling, the conventional monetary policies would lowering the interest rates, increasing the money supply and aggregate demand in the economy. Primarily three measures are:

Bank rate: It is an indirect method in creating volume in the credit and the initiative lies in the hands of commercial banks. For commercial banks, the cost of credit for the availability of credit is increased. It induces to increase consumer spending and investment made by the firms for increasing growth.

Open market Operations: It is a direct way by the central bank to induce money supply in the economy. For expansionary monetary policy, it is mainly done by selling the central bank securities in the money market for creating more liquidity in the market.

Cash Reserve ratio: The decrease in the cash reserve ratio (reserve that needs to be kept with the central banks), increases the credit of cash reserves, thereby increasing their potential to credit creating capacity.

Question 2c)

The conventional measures of central banks fail to work in times of economic crisis or deep recession because they are not able to create more money supply in the market. As a result, bank reserves are already at a minimum and cannot risk default by lowering if further. The bank interest rates are already lowered and the central banks cannot risk it bringing it to close to 0 because this will lead to a liquidity trap. Once interest rates are lowered close to zero, the economy also risks falling into a liquidity trap, where investment leads to no profits and people hoard money. As a result, the central bank needs to resort to unconventional methods.

Question 2d)

Quantitative easing is a measure that increases the money supply and lowers the long term interest rates by purchasing other securities like to buy government bonds from commercial banks. Moreover, other than bonds, the government can even buy debt instruments (mortgage-backed securities) owned by financial institutions. Quantitative easing is common with conventional monetary policies because it increases the money supply by following open market operations in the purchase and sale of bonds instead of securities and it is a direct way to do it.

On the other hand, credit easing is applied when the central banks start buying private assets such as corporate bonds.

6 0
3 years ago
Is Air a scarce resource ?
Katyanochek1 [597]
No it is not.

To be categorized as 'scarce' a resource must be really hard to get and not all people could get it.

air exist in abundant amount and it's also free. So air definitely not a scarce resources.

hope this helps


7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
⦁ a local drama company proposes a new neighborhood theater in san francisco. before approving the permit, the city planner comp
aleksandrvk [35]
<span>This is a negative externality. Since the cost of the traffic being in the community is not being borne by the theatre company itself, it is negative. The community as a whole is having to pay for the extra $5 in costs that will be accrued as a result of selling each ticket.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Rollins Corporation is estimating its WACC. Its target capital structure is 20 percent debt, 20 percent preferred stock, and 60
Serggg [28]

Answer:

d. 12.6%

Explanation:

Rollins Corporation will receive $100 - ($100 x 5% flotation costs) = $100 - $5 = $95 net for each preferred stock issued

Since it will have to pay $12 on preferred dividends, the cost of preferred stocks = preferred dividend per preferred stock / net amount received per preferred stock = $12 / $95 = 0.1263 = 12.6%

Flotation costs are costs that a corporation incurs when issuing new stocks or bonds, and they include legal fees, underwriting fees, etc.

4 0
3 years ago
Data were collected for a sample of 12 pharmacists to determine if years of experience and salary are related. A regression was
frutty [35]

Answer:

b. Reject the null hypothesis and we conclude that years of experience is significant in explaining pharmacists' salary

Explanation:

We are given p-value less than 0.001, which means p-value less than given level of significance or alpha value 0.05, so we reject the null hypothesis and conclude that years of experience is significant in explaining pharmacists’ salary.

4 0
3 years ago
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