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1 year ago

For the arithmetic sequence 42, 32, 22, 12... find the 5th, 6th, and 7th terms

1 answer:

vladimir2022 [97]1 year ago

6 0

Notice that the sequence involves subtracting 10 units from the previous term. Then, we are in the case of an arithmetic sequence with common difference = -10, since we build the next rem by subtracting 10 from the previous. so we have:

term 1 = 42

term 2 = 42 - 10 = 32

term 3 = 32 - 10 = 22

term 4 = 22 - 10 = 12

term 5 = 12 - 10 = 2

term 6 = 2 - 10 = -8

term 7 = -8 - 10 = -18

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uranmaximum [27]

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3 years ago

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Three cards are drawn from a standard deck of 52 cards without replacement. Find the probability that the first card is an ace,

MrRissso [65]

Answer:

$4.82\cdot 10^{-4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

In a deck of cart, we have:

a = 4 (aces)

t = 4 (three)

j = 4 (jacks)

And the total number of cards in the deck is

n = 52

So, the probability of drawing an ace as first cart is:

$p(a)=\frac{a}{n}=\frac{4}{52}=\frac{1}{13}=0.0769$

At the second drawing, the ace is not replaced within the deck. So the number of cards left in the deck is

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Therefore, the probability of drawing a three at the 2nd draw is

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Then, at the third draw, the previous 2 cards are not replaced, so there are now

$n-2=50$

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$p(j)=\frac{j}{n-2}=\frac{4}{50}=0.08$

Therefore, the total probability of drawing an ace, a three and then a jack is:

$p(atj)=p(a)\cdot p(j) \cdot p(t)=0.0769\cdot 0.0784 \cdot 0.08 =4.82\cdot 10^{-4}$

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4 years ago

What is 8/15÷2/5?What so u think is the best answer for this problem??

Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

1 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve. Change the division sign into a multiplication, and flip the second fraction:

(8/15)/(2/5) = (8/15) x (5/2)

Multiply across:

(8 x 5)/(15 x 2) = (40)/(30)

Simplify. Divide common factors:

(40/30)/(10/10) = 4/3

4/3 or 1 1/3 is your answer.

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4 years ago

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andre [41]

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side length^2= 8^2=64
64*6=384cm^2

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3 years ago

What is 0.351 as a fraction

AlekseyPX

Answer:

351/1000

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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