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1 year ago

Name the figure below in two different ways.

Mathematics

1 answer:

jolli1 [7]1 year ago

4 0

Answer:

$\overrightarrow{\sf XJ} \: \textsf{ and } \: \overrightarrow{\sf XE}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Ray: Part of a line that has one endpoint and extends infinitely in only one direction. The length of a ray cannot be measured.

When naming a ray, use its endpoint first and then any other point on the ray.

The symbol for a ray is an arrow pointing to the right: $\Large \text{$\rightarrow$}$

The given figure is a ray with endpoint X.

Therefore, the given ray can be named as: XJ and XE.

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3 years ago

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An urn contains nine red and one blue balls. A second urn contains one red and five blue balls. One ball is removed from each ur

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Answer:

0.362

Step-by-step explanation:

When drawing randomly from the 1st and 2nd urn, 4 case scenarios may happen:

- Red ball is drawn from the 1st urn with a probability of 9/10, red ball is drawn from the 2st urn with a probability of 1/6. The probability of this case to happen is (9/10)*(1/6) = 9/60 = 3/20 or 0.15. The probability that a ball drawn randomly from the third urn is blue given this scenario is (1 blue + 5 blue)/(8 red + 1 blue + 5 blue) = 6/14 = 3/7.

- Red ball is drawn from the 1st urn with a probability of 9/10, blue ball is drawn from the 2nd urn with a probability of 5/6. The probability of this event to happen is (9/10)*(5/6) = 45/60 = 3/4 or 0.75. The probability that a ball drawn randomly from the third urn is blue given this scenario is (1 blue + 4 blue)/(8 red + 1 blue + 1 red + 4 blue) = 5/14

- Blue ball is drawn from the 1st urn with a probability of 1/10, blue ball is drawn from the 2nd urn with a probability of 5/6. The probability of this event to happen is (1/10)*(5/6) = 5/60 = 1/12. The probability that a ball drawn randomly from the third urn is blue given this scenario is (4 blue)/(9 red + 1 red + 4 blue) = 4/14 = 2/7

- Blue ball is drawn from the 1st urn with a probability of 1/10, red ball is drawn from the 2st urn with a probability of 1/6. The probability of this event to happen is (1/10)*(1/6) = 1/60. The probability that a ball drawn randomly from the third urn is blue given this scenario is (5 blue)/(9 red + 5 blue) = 5/14.

Overall, the total probability that a ball drawn randomly from the third urn is blue is the sum of product of each scenario to happen with their respective given probability

P = 0.15(3/7) + 0.75(5/14) + (1/12)*(2/7) + (1/60)*(5/14) = 0.362

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3 years ago

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DaniilM [7]

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3 years ago

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Prove that if n is a perfect square then n + 2 is not a perfect square

notka56 [123]

Answer:

This statement can be proven by contradiction for $n \in \mathbb{N}$ (including the case where $n = 0$ .)

$\text{Let $n \in \mathbb{N}$ be a perfect square}$ .

$\textbf{Case 1.} ~ \text{n = 0}$ :

$\text{$n + 2 = 2$, which isn't a perfect square}$ .

$\text{Claim verified for $n = 0$}$ .

$\textbf{Case 2.} ~ \text{$n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $n \ne 0$. Hence $n \ge 1$}$ .

$\text{Assume that $n$ is a perfect square}$ .

$\text{$\iff$ $\exists$ $a \in \mathbb{N}$ s.t. $a^2 = n$}$ .

$\text{Assume $\textit{by contradiction}$ that $(n + 2)$ is a perfect square}$ .

$\text{$\iff$ $\exists$ $b \in \mathbb{N}$ s.t. $b^2 = n + 2$}$ .

$\text{$n + 2 > n > 0$ $\implies$ $b = \sqrt{n + 2} > \sqrt{n} = a$}$ .

$\text{$a,\, b \in \mathbb{N} \subset \mathbb{Z}$ $\implies b - a = b + (- a) \in \mathbb{Z}$}$ .

$\text{$b > a \implies b - a > 0$. Therefore, $b - a \ge 1$}$ .

$\text{$\implies b \ge a + 1$}$ .

$\text{$\implies n+ 2 = b^2 \ge (a + 1)^2= a^2 + 2\, a + 1 = n + 2\, a + 1$}$ .

$\text{$\iff 1 \ge 2\,a $}$ .

$\text{$\displaystyle \iff a \le \frac{1}{2}$}$ .

$\text{Contradiction (with the assumption that $a \ge 1$)}$ .

$\text{Hence the original claim is verified for $n \in \mathbb{N}\backslash\{0\}$}$ .

$\text{Hence the claim is true for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$}$ .

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume that the natural number $n \in \mathbb{N}$ is a perfect square. Then, (by the definition of perfect squares) there should exist a natural number $a$ ( $a \in \mathbb{N}$ ) such that $a^2 = n$ .

Assume by contradiction that $n + 2$ is indeed a perfect square. Then there should exist another natural number $b \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $b^2 = (n + 2)$ .

Note, that since $(n + 2) > n \ge 0$ , $\sqrt{n + 2} > \sqrt{n}$ . Since $b = \sqrt{n + 2}$ while $a = \sqrt{n}$ , one can conclude that $b > a$ .

Keep in mind that both $a$ and $b$ are natural numbers. The minimum separation between two natural numbers is $1$ . In other words, if $b > a$ , then it must be true that $b \ge a + 1$ .

Take the square of both sides, and the inequality should still be true. (To do so, start by multiplying both sides by $(a + 1)$ and use the fact that $b \ge a + 1$ to make the left-hand side $b^2$ .)

$b^2 \ge (a + 1)^2$ .

Expand the right-hand side using the binomial theorem:

$(a + 1)^2 = a^2 + 2\,a + 1$ .

$b^2 \ge a^2 + 2\,a + 1$ .

However, recall that it was assumed that $a^2 = n$ and $b^2 = n + 2$ . Therefore,

$\underbrace{b^2}_{=n + 2)} \ge \underbrace{a^2}_{=n} + 2\,a + 1$ .

$n + 2 \ge n + 2\, a + 1$ .

Subtract $n + 1$ from both sides of the inequality:

$1 \ge 2\, a$ .

$\displaystyle a \le \frac{1}{2} = 0.5$ .

Recall that $a$ was assumed to be a natural number. In other words, $a \ge 0$ and $a$ must be an integer. Hence, the only possible value of $a$ would be $0$ .

Since $a$ could be equal $0$ , there's not yet a valid contradiction. To produce the contradiction and complete the proof, it would be necessary to show that $a = 0$ just won't work as in the assumption.

If indeed $a = 0$ , then $n = a^2 = 0$ . $n + 2 = 2$ , which isn't a perfect square. That contradicts the assumption that if $n = 0$ is a perfect square, $n + 2 = 2$ would be a perfect square. Hence, by contradiction, one can conclude that

$\text{if $n$ is a perfect square, then $n + 2$ is not a perfect square.}$ .

Note that to produce a more well-rounded proof, it would likely be helpful to go back to the beginning of the proof, and show that $n \ne 0$ . Then one can assume without loss of generality that $n \ne 0$ . In that case, the fact that $\displaystyle a \le \frac{1}{2}$ is good enough to count as a contradiction.

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3 years ago

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago