Answer:
d. $4,500
Explanation:
The computation of depreciation expense on the new equipment is shown below:-
For computing the depreciation expense on the new equipment first we need to find out the Depreciation per annum which is here below:-
Depreciation per annum = (Cost - Residual value) ÷ Life
= ($76,000 - $4,000) ÷ 8
= $72,000 ÷ 8
= $9,000
Depreciation for 1 year calendar (July 1 to Dec 31) = Depreciation per annum × 6 months ÷ Total number of months in a year
= $9,000 × 6 ÷ 12
= $4,500
So, the depreciation expenses for the year end up-to 31st Dec is $4,500
Answer:
True
Explanation:
P/E ratio is the price to earning ratio. Investor look into this ratio before investing or buying share of the company as it shows the market value of the shares or demand of the shares in the market. If ratio is higher then investor anticipate the growth of the company´s earning in the future, it also show investors are willing to pay higher price for each dollar earning of the company.
Price earning ratio= 
Answer:
a-The present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-The total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Explanation:
a-
Let the function of the revenue earned is given as
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0The present value is given as [tex]PV=\int\limits^a_b {S(t)e^{-rt}} \, dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EThe%20present%20value%20is%20given%20as%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5Ea_b%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-rt%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt)
Here
- a and b are the limits of integral which are 0 and 1 respectively
- r is the rate of interest which is 5% or 0.05
- S(t) is the function of value which is
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0So the equation becomes[tex]PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t+38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=8113.7805+18764.4669+34207.6751\\PV=61085.9225](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fli%3E%3C%2Ful%3E%3Cp%3ESo%20the%20equation%20becomes%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_1%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%2B38000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2838000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D8113.7805%2B18764.4669%2B34207.6751%5C%5CPV%3D61085.9225)
So the present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-
The time in which the machine pays for itself is given as

The present value is set equal to the value of machine which is given as
$160,000 so the equation becomes:

So the total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
The present value of a deferred perpetuity is $1,938.89.
What is present value?
The present value of a prospective sum of money or cash flow stream given a specified return rate is known as its present value (PV). The present value of future cash flows is reduced by the discount rate, and the higher coupon rate, the lower the present value of future cash flows. The key to correctly valuing future cash flows, whether they are earnings or debt obligations, is determining the appropriate discount rate. The concept of present value states that a quantity of funds today is worth greater than the same amount in the long term. In other words, money gained in the long term is not as valuable as money received today.
The present value of a deferred perpetuity that pays $141 annually with the first payment occurring at year 5 is $1,938.89. This can be calculated by taking the present value of an ordinary annuity formula, which is PV = A / (1 + r)^n, and adding 5 to n. This gives the equation PV = A / (1 + r)^(n + 5), which can be simplified to PV = A / (1 + r)^n * (1 + r)^5. Thus, the present value is $141 / (1 + 0.06)^10 * (1 + 0.06)^5, which equals $1,938.89.
To learn more about present value
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Umm can someone answer this please because i need help on this as well